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Makovka662 [10]
2 years ago
12

Rock industries allocates manufacturing overhead at a predetermined rate of 160% of direct labor cost. Any overallocated or unde

rallocated overhead is closed to the cost of goods sold at the end of the month. Below is information on job 205 that was in process at the end of the month of October.
Direct materials $4,000
Direct labor $3,000
Allocated manufacturing overhead $4,800

Jobs 206, 207, and 208 were started in November. Direct materials that were used in November were $26,000 and direct labor costs were $21,000. For the month of November, actual manufacturing overhead was $32,000. The only job still in process on the last day of November was job 104withthe following costs: $3,000 for direct materials and $1,500 for direct labor.

Required:
a. Calculate the cost of goods manufacturered for November.
b. Prepare the journal entries to record the current month activity.
c. Calculate the amount of overallocated or underallocated manufacturing overhead. Be sure to label the answer as either overallocated or underallocated.
d. Prepare the accounting entries to close the overallocated or underallocated manufacturing overhead on November 30?
Business
1 answer:
nadya68 [22]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<u>Cost of goods manufactured for November.</u>

Manufacturing Schedule Cost

Beginning Inventory (Job 205)                $11,800

Direct materials                                       $26,000

Direct labor costs                                     $21,000

Applied Overheads ($21,000 x 160%)    $33,600

Less Ending Inventory (Job 104)            ($6,900)

Cost of Goods Manufactured                 $85,500

<u>Journal entries to record the current month activity.</u>

Debit : Work In Process $80,600

Credit : Direct materials                                       $26,000

Credit : Direct labor costs                                     $21,000

Credit : Applied Overheads ($21,000 x 160%)    $33,600

<u>Calculation of amount of over allocated or under allocated manufacturing overhead</u>

Actual Manufacturing Overheads = $32,000

Applied Manufacturing Overheads = $33,600

Therefore, Overheads Over-applied = $1,600

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hammer [34]
Because NDP stands for National Domestic Product which means everything that is produced in the country e.g. the US, and abroad from companies that are American.
Whereas, GDP is just from goods and services made in the country and in its borders.
6 0
2 years ago
Baylor Bank believes the New Zealand dollar will appreciate over the next five days from $.48 to $.50. The following annual inte
Nitella [24]

Answer:

Its dollar profit from speculation over the five-day period will be <u>$208,035.93</u>.

Explanation:

This can be determined as follows:

Assuming Baylor Bank borrow $5,000,000

The borrowing will be converted to New Zealand dollar at the current exchange rate and we will have:

Conversion = $5,000,000 / 0.48 = NZ$10,416,667

The NZ$10,416,667 shall be invested at an annualized based on  New Zealand lending rate of 6.75% over five days. This will produce future value (FV) as follows:

FV of investment = Amount invested * (1 + NZ lending rate)^(5 years / 360 days) = NZ$10,416,667 * (1 + 6.75%)^(5 / 360) = NZ$10,426,121.44

Converting the NZ$10,426,121.44 to dollar at the new rate of $.50 as follows:

New conversion = NZ$10,426,121.44 * $.05 = $5,213,060.72

Amount to repay based on the US borrowing rate = Amount borrowed in USD * (1 + US borrowing rate)^(5 years / 360 days) = $5,000,000 * (1 + 7.5%)^(5 / 360) = $5,000,000 * 1.00100495826555 = $5,005,024.79

Profit = New conversion - Amount to repay = $5,213,060.72 - $5,005,024.79 = $208,035.93

Therefore, its dollar profit from speculation over the five-day period will be <u>$208,035.93</u>.

3 0
3 years ago
The Weber Company purchased a mining site for $1,750,000 on July 1. The company expects to mine ore for the next 10 years and an
AlladinOne [14]

Answer:

The correct solution is "$26,000".

Explanation:

The given values are:

Cost

= $1,750,000

Salvage value

= $150,000

First Year Extraction

= 6,500

Total Extraction

= 400,000

Now,

⇒ Depletion \ Expense = (Cost - Salvage \ value)\times (\frac{First \ Year \ Extraction}{Total \ extraction} )

On putting the values, we get

⇒                                = (1,750,000 - 150,000)\times (\frac{6,500}{400,000} )

⇒                                = 1,600,000\times 0.01625

⇒                                = 26,000 ($)  

4 0
3 years ago
Please help!!! I need help ASAP!
34kurt
Hi!

 The answer to your question should be B. Pays the difference of the current value to the amount you owe.
5 0
3 years ago
During the year,Liptom Company made an entry to write off a $4,000 uncollectible account. Before this entry was made, the balanc
Andru [333]

Answer:

$55,500

Explanation:

The computation of the net realizable value after the write off entry is show below:

The credit balance in allowance with terms to bad debts is

= $4,500 - $4,000

= $500

Now the net realizable value is

= ($60,000 - $4,000) - ($4,500 - $4,000)

= $56,000 - $500

= $55,500

Hence, the same is to be considered

7 0
2 years ago
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