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Step2247 [10]
3 years ago
7

1. A coupon bond pays the owner of the bond A) the same amount every month until the maturity date. B) a fixed interest payment

every period, plus the face value of the bond at the maturity date. C) the face value of the bond plus an interest payment once the maturity date has been reached. D) the face value at the maturity date. E) none of the above.
Business
2 answers:
a_sh-v [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Option "B" is the correct answer to the following statement.

Explanation:

A coupon bond contract, also abbreviated to as a holder stock, is a debt with a stamp that also has tiny attachable vouchers. The vouchers grant the buyer the opportunity to make interest charges from the lender.

In a coupon bond, an investor gets the face value of the bond on maturity with a fixed interest payment.

JulijaS [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B) a fixed interest payment every period, plus the face value of the bond at maturity

Explanation:

A Bond refers to security for raising long term finance whereby the borrower agrees to pay the lenders, a fixed coupon rate of payments periodically coupled with repayment of debt at maturity.

A coupon bond is usually referred to as a bearer instrument which does not record the name of the purchaser, and makes semi annual coupon payments and principal repayment upon maturity.

Such bonds are rarely issued since the start of online securities listing and trading. Certificates are no longer or rather say rarely issued.  

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Kreter, Inc. earned net income of $300,000 last year. This year it wants to earn net income of $450,000. The company's fixed cos
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

sales is $2,500,000

Explanation:

The target sales for the company to achieve a net income of $450,000 in the current year equals the net income plus variable cost plus the fixed costs.

To understand this better,let us use the net income formula:

net income=sales-variable costs-fixed costs

by changing the subject of the formula,we the formula for sales:

sales=net income+variable costs+fixed costs

variable costs=sales*70%=0.7 sales

sales=$450,000+$300,000+0.7 sales

sales-0.7 sales=$750,000

0.3 sales=$750,000

sales=$750,000/0.3=$2,500,000

8 0
3 years ago
The Dahle Manufacturing Company has two production departments (Assembly and Finishing) and two service departments (Human Resou
ikadub [295]

Answer:

$54,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what the amount of Human Resources cost allocated to the Assembly Department is:

Using this formula

Human Resources cost allocated to the Assembly Department=Human Resources budgeted costs* Human resource percentage

Let plug in the formula

Human Resources cost allocated to the Assembly Department=$90,000 x 60%

Human Resources cost allocated to the Assembly Department = $54,000

Therefore Using the step-down method and assuming the Human Resources Department is allocated first, the amount of Human Resources cost allocated to the Assembly Department is:$54,000

3 0
2 years ago
A company has two products: standard and deluxe. The company expects to produce 36,375 standard units and 62,240 deluxe units. I
Scrat [10]

Answer:

  1. A1 = $12 A2 = $9.20 A3 = $1.50
  2. Total Overhead for Standart Product              $267.16
  3. Total Overhead for Deluxe Product              $163.48

Explanation:

First we will Calculate the rates:

This is done by adding the two product activity use to get the total cost driver.

Then we divide by the activity cost to get the rate:

\left[\begin{array}{cccc}activity&cost&driver&rate\\1&93,000&7,750&12\\2&92,000&10,000&9,2\\3&8,700&5,800&1,5\\\end{array}\right]

Next we check the overhead per unit:

units/ activity use x rate = overhead for activity

<em>Standart Product Manufacturing Overhead</em>

36,375units /2,500 Use Activity 1   x $12    =  $174.60

36,375units /4,500 Use Activity 2 x $9.20 =   $74.37

36,375units /3,000 Use Activity 3  x $1.50=      $18.19

Total Overhead for Standart Product              $267.16

<em>Deluxe Product Manufacturing Overhead</em>

62,240units /5,250 Use Activity 1   x $12    =   $83,14  

62,240units /5,500 Use Activity 2 x $9.20 =   $60,85

62,240units /2,800 Use Activity 3  x $1.50=      $19,49

Total Overhead for Deluxe Product              $163.48

 

 

7 0
3 years ago
Damon convinced his aunt to lend him 2000 to purchase a plasma digital tv she has agreed to charge only 6 percnt simple interest
AnnyKZ [126]

Answer:

$120

Explanation:

In this question, we simply have to apply the simple interest formula which is shown below:

= Principal amount × rate of interest × time period

= $2,000 × 6% × 1 year

= $120

Simply we multiplied the principal amount with the interest rate and the time period so that the accurate amount can come.

So, $120 interest is paid for the year

7 0
3 years ago
When a partnership is liquidated, how is the final distribution of partnership cash made to the partners?
velikii [3]

According to the profit and loss the partnership is liquidated, and the final distribution of partnership cash is made to the partners.

When a partnership is liquidated, how is the final distribution of partnership cash made to the partners? Which of the subsequent statements is actually concerning the accounting for a partnership going via liquidation? within a liquidation, all gains and losses are divided equally among some of the partners.

The partnership comes to a decision to liquidate, the property of the partnership is sold, liabilities are paid off, and any remaining coins are sent to the companions according to their capital account balances.

Liquidating distributions (coins or noncash) are a form of a return of capital. Any liquidating distribution you receive isn't always taxable to you until you recover the basis of your inventory. After the idea of your stock is reduced to zero, you ought to document the liquidating distribution as a capital advantage.

Learn more about partnership Liquidating here:brainly.com/question/24131354

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
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