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Galina-37 [17]
3 years ago
8

1. A chess set has 32 pieces, 16 black and 16 white. In each color, there

Mathematics
1 answer:
USPshnik [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

I believe the answer is A.

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't really know how to really explain it tho

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Kesara santiago purchased a riding mower for $2,746.00. she received a $49.95 rebate from the manufacturer and a $38.95 rebate f
andrew11 [14]

A rebate means that the buyer receives back a portion of the original price of the item. So in this case, the rebate prices must be deducted from the original price to get the final price, that is:

final price = $2,746 - $49.95 - $38.95

<span>final price = $2,657.1</span>

8 0
4 years ago
Super easy plz answer all for 20 points just adding
sergejj [24]
7/8+9/10=71/40=1 31/40
1/4+2/3=11/12
1/2+1/4 is different from 1/2+1/3 because 
1/2+1/4= 2/4+1/4=  5/1 =1  1/4
1/2+1/3=3/6+2/6=5/6
6 0
3 years ago
How much will I get if I get a 8 percent of $108000
iren [92.7K]

Answer:

8,640

Step-by-step explanation:

EASY PERIOD

5 0
4 years ago
I need help asap
In-s [12.5K]
You know the formula for calculating the lateral area of a cylinder with a radius r and height h is S=2*π*r*h
So we have S= 2*π*6*20= 240π
Have fun
6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
4. Using the geometric sum formulas, evaluate each of the following sums and express your answer in Cartesian form.
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

\sum_{n=0}^9cos(\frac{\pi n}{2})=1

\sum_{k=0}^{N-1}e^{\frac{i2\pi kk}{2}}=0

\sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{2})^n cos(\frac{\pi n}{2})=\frac{1}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

\sum_{n=0}^9cos(\frac{\pi n}{2})=\frac{1}{2}(\sum_{n=0}^9 (e^{\frac{i\pi n}{2}}+ e^{\frac{i\pi n}{2}}))

=\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1-e^{\frac{10i\pi}{2}}}{1-e^{\frac{i\pi}{2}}}+\frac{1-e^{-\frac{10i\pi}{2}}}{1-e^{-\frac{i\pi}{2}}})

=\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1+1}{1-i}+\frac{1+1}{1+i})=1

2nd

\sum_{k=0}^{N-1}e^{\frac{i2\pi kk}{2}}=\frac{1-e^{\frac{i2\pi N}{N}}}{1-e^{\frac{i2\pi}{N}}}

=\frac{1-1}{1-e^{\frac{i2\pi}{N}}}=0

3th

\sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{2})^n cos(\frac{\pi n}{2})==\frac{1}{2}(\sum_{n=0}^\infty ((\frac{e^{\frac{i\pi n}{2}}}{2})^n+ (\frac{e^{-\frac{i\pi n}{2}}}{2})^n))

=\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1-0}{1-i}+\frac{1-0}{1+i})=\frac{1}{2}

What we use?

We use that

e^{i\pi n}=cos(\pi n)+i sin(\pi n)

and

\sum_{n=0}^k r^k=\frac{1-r^{k+1}}{1-r}

6 0
3 years ago
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