We are given chance of winning a game is 1/50.
In decimal form 1/50 could be written as 0.02.
So, for each game, the chance of winning is 0.02.
Therefore, chance of loss would be = 1 -(0.02) = 0.98.
Chance of loss of 50 independent games = 0.98*0.98*0.98*0.98...... upto 50 times, that is (0.98)^50.
The chance of winning at least once = 1 - (0.98)^50.
We got (0.98)^50 = 0.36417
Therefore, 1 - (0.98)^50 = 1 - 0.36417.
We get 0.63583.
Therefore, correct option is c. 0.6358.
Answer:
The answer is A.
Step-by-step explanation:
2x2x2= 8 but one of them fell off.
Answer:
4
Step-by-step explanation:
2.5+1 1/2
Change the fraction to a decimal
2.5 + 1.5
4
Answer:
<u>The standard deviation of the uniform distribution is:</u>
<u>U(3, 12)</u>
- σ = (12−3)/√12 = 9/√12 = 2.5981
<u>U(80, 250)</u>
- σ = (250−80)/√12 = 170/√12 = 49.0748
<u>U(4, 93)</u>
- σ = (93−4)/√12 = 89/√12 = 25.6921