Answer:
$525
Explanation:
Calculation for The equivalent value today
Equivalent value=$500 × (1+.05)
Equivalent value=$500 × (1.05)
Equivalent value= $525
Therefore The equivalent value today is closest to:$525
Answer:
The present value of the machine is $35499
Explanation:
The annual amount or annuity amount = $4010 per year.
Total number of years = 13 years
Here, the interest rate is not given so we just assume the interest rate = 6% per annum.
Since we have a total number of years and annual payment that occurs for 13 years. We are required to find the present value of the machine. So use the formula to find the present value of the annuity.
The present value of machine = (Annuity amount x (1 – (1+r)^-n) ) / r
The present value of machine = (4010(1 – (1+6%)^-13) ) / 6%
The present value of machine = $35499
Answer: • Defensive operations are usually common and that the dynamic open market operations is smaller than the volume of the defensive open market operations.
Explanation:
Open market operations is when treasury bills and securities are on sale in an economy. It is typically bought by the central bank to ensure that money is available in an economy.
Open market operations are typically repurchase agreements tells us that defensive operations are usually common and that the dynamic open market operations is smaller than the volume of the defensive open market operations.
Answer:
The correct answer is $81,400.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Current earning = $74,000
As Brad is searching for a city which is 10% higher than current city then to maintain same living he has to earn 10% more than he earns.
So, total earning needed = $74,000 + 10% of $74,000
= $74,000 + $7,400
= $81400
Hence, the total earning brad needed is $81,400.
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation:
Under this case the write off will be as follow:
Debit Credit
Allowance for doubtful accounts 25,200
Accounts receivables 25,200
Here, in this case the Allowance for the doubtful accounts and Accounts receivables are further decreased as the outcome of the transaction made. Thus, there will be no further effect on working capital. Therefore the $30,000 that is bad debt would then be stated as the credit to allowance account. This will then decrease the working capital by $30,000.
