Answer:
The probability that at lest one job will be missed in 57 second is
=0.819134
Step-by-step explanation:
Poisson distribution:
A discrete random variable X having the enumerable set {0,1,2,....} as the spectrum, is said to be Poisson distribution.
for x=0,1,2...
λ is the average per unit time
Given that, a job arrives at a web server with the probability 0.03.
Here λ=0.03, t=57 second.
The probability that at lest one job will be missed in 57 second is
=P(X≥1)
=1- P(X<1)
=1- P(X=0)


=0.819134
A cross-section is the shape that would be exposed when cutting straight through a 3-D object. for example, cutting horizontally through a regular cone would expose a circle.
an intersection is where 2 or more shapes (does not matter how many dimensions) overlap. for example, the point at which two lines overlap is the intersection. or the area that two overlapping circles share is the intersection.
Answer:
it may be B but I think it's C
Step-by-step explanation:
not sure if this is right, but I would say not congruent. it may be sas but in order for it to be sas then the Angle must be in-between the two congruent sides
A function

is periodic if there is some constant

such that

for all

in the domain of

. Then

is the "period" of

.
Example:
If

, then we have

, and so

is periodic with period

.
It gets a bit more complicated for a function like yours. We're looking for

such that

Expanding on the left, you have

and

It follows that the following must be satisfied:

The first two equations are satisfied whenever

, or more generally, when

and

(i.e. any multiple of 4).
The second two are satisfied whenever

, and more generally when

with

(any multiple of 10/7).
It then follows that all four equations will be satisfied whenever the two sets above intersect. This happens when

is any common multiple of 4 and 10/7. The least positive one would be 20, which means the period for your function is 20.
Let's verify:


More generally, it can be shown that

is periodic with period

.
We can first add up the cards so we know how many we have in all:
16 + 16 + 18 = 50 cards
We can do this a little bit easier if we get the "16"-cards in one number total.
16 + 16 = 32

= 32 x 2 =

50 x 2

= 64 : 2 = 32 %
100
We did just divide the % of two types cards on 2, so we get the %-chance of 1 type card.
I am not quite sure, but I think that 32 % is the correct answer.