28

Mathematics

1 answer:

Marrrta [24]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

I believe that the answer is 2x-8

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HELLPPPP MEEEEEE please!!!!!

steposvetlana [31]

Answer: Branliest plz

ok so for the numbers from 0-150 is one bar, 150-300 is another bar, 300-450 is another bar, and finally 450-600 is the last bar. You put the numbers that go in each different bar i n their seperate bar.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

#82 will give brainliest to best answer!

Fofino [41]

Answer:

$\frac{6}{k-6}$

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we can factor all of the following equations to turn that weird, huge looking thing into $\frac{(k+6)(k-6)}{(k-6)(k-10)}$ ÷ $\frac{(k-6)^2}{k(k-6)}$ × $\frac{6(k-10)}{k(k + 6)}$ . We know that division is simply multiplication by the reciprocal, so that whole equation will turn into $\frac{(k+6)(k-6)}{(k-6)(k-10)}$ × $\frac{k(k-6)}{(k-6)^2}$ × $\frac{6(k-10)}{k(k+6)}$ . Now we can cancel out some values if they are both in the numerator and denominator, which will turn that still huge looking thing into $\frac{6}{k-6}$ which is our final answer, as it cannot be simplified further.