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rusak2 [61]
2 years ago
12

PLEASE HELP

Mathematics
1 answer:
AysviL [449]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

3 Gallons

Step-by-step explanation:

If half a gallon of paint covers 1/6 of a wall, then we need 6 1/2 gallons of paint. To make this simpler, we can just say that a gallon of paint can cover 2/6 of the wall. This means that with 2 gallons of paint, we can cover 4/6 of the wall. 3 gallons of paint will cover 6/6 of the wall.

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Which operation properly transforms matrix I to matrix II?
Y_Kistochka [10]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Replace R1 with 1 and R3 with 0 you have -2(1)+0 which equals 0 and that matches matrix II. Repeat the process with the other numbers in R1 and R3 and they all come out equal therefor the answer is D.

8 0
2 years ago
-3( 2u + 5 ) +3.5u = -1u solve the equation
lora16 [44]

Answer:

that conclude idk

Step-by-step explanation:

-6U+-15+3.5U=-1U

-2.5U+15

4 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
Make d the subject of the formula h=d/3+2​
Flura [38]

Answer:

3h - 6

Step-by-step explanation:

To understand better,I have attached a picture to this answer

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The lines represented by
Sliva [168]

Answer:

perpendicular lines, hope this helps <33

7 0
11 months ago
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