Answer:
4 2/3 ÷ 3 1/3= 1 2/5
Step-by-step explanation:
First, you turn the mixed terms into an improper fraction like this
4 2/3 → 14/3 because when you multiply 4 times 3 equaling 12 then having 2 then adding that you get 14/3.
3 1/3 → 10/3 because when you multiply 3*3=9 then having 1 and adding that you get 10/3.
Then, you do KCF which stands for <u>Keep Change Flip</u> so for this you would do: 14/3 ÷ 10/3 → 14/3 × 3/10
14 × 3 = 42 and 3 × 10= 30
Now being 42/30 this is considered an improper fraction in which you have to transform it into a mixed number like this:
(For this you need to find the greatest common factor)
42/30 → 42 and 30 greatest common factor is 6 because they are divisible and factor of 6.
Now you divide both the denominator and the numerator y 6 like this:
42 ÷ 6= 7
30 ÷ 6= 5
Now we have 7/5, this is still an improper number so we see how many times 7 can go to 5 which is once. So we have 1 as whole number, now we put the reminder as the numenator of the mix fraction keeping 5 as being the denominator.
Overall, We have our answer 1 2/5
I hope this helps :D
The odds of rolling a 4 is 1/6 or 0.16667 or 16%
The answer is twenty four if I read that correctly
Answer:
the answer is 9/2 = 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
When yo add all the halves up you get 9/2
Answer:
p=25
Step-by-step explanation:
-5[-9=-
-4] Get rid of the fraction by multiplying the whole equation by -5.
45=p+20 Then, subtract 20 from both sides.
25=p
