<span>Immigration to Europe has a long history, but increased substantially in the later 20th century.Western European countries, especially, saw a high growth in immigration .America to Spain and Portugal; and from Ireland, India, Pakistan, Germany,According to residence permit data for 2011, more than 710,000 were.</span>
<span>❅ </span>It existed f<span> from the </span>end of the Napoleonic Wars to the outbreak of World War I.
Expansion of territory, they believed it was their "destiny" to expand from coast to coast
Two major <span>similarities between the monotheistic religions is that only one god is always worshiped, and that it is impossible to worship without the endorsement of religious leaders. </span>
I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
