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Pavlova-9 [17]
3 years ago
7

The inverse of Fx) is a function. FOD A. True B. False

Mathematics
1 answer:
anastassius [24]3 years ago
8 0
Not all functions have inverse functions. Those that do are called invertible. For a function f: X → Y to have an inverse, it must have the property that for every y in Y, there is exactly one x in X such that f(x) = y.
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Answer:

6√2

Step-by-step explanation:

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8 0
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Nady [450]
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4 0
3 years ago
How do I solve this?
blagie [28]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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