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Brums [2.3K]
3 years ago
6

A department adds raw materials to a Process at the beginning of the process and incurs conversion costs uniformly throughout th

e process. For the month of January, there were no units in the beginning work in process inventory; 90,000 units were started in production in January; and there were 20,000 units that were 40 percentage complete in V ending work in process inventory at the end of January What were the equivalent un of production for conversion costs for the month of January? a. 70,000 equivalent units b. 82,000 equivalent units. c. 78,000 equivalent units. d. 90,000 equivalent units.
Business
1 answer:
Natasha_Volkova [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: c. 78,000 equivalent units.

Explanation:

Equivalent units for conversion is calculated as:

= Units completed and transferred out + Equivalent ending work in process

Units completed and transferred out:

= Units started into production - Ending units

= 90,000 - 20,000

= 70,000 units

Equivalent ending work in process = 40% * 20,000 work in process units

= 8,000 units

Equivalent units for conversion = 70,000 + 8,000

= 78,000 units

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what is the present value of a deferred perpetuity that pays $141 annually with the first payment occurring at year 5? assume th
yKpoI14uk [10]

The present value of a deferred perpetuity is $1,938.89.

What is present value?
The present value of a prospective sum of money or cash flow stream given a specified return rate is known as its present value (PV). The present value of future cash flows is reduced by the discount rate, and the higher coupon rate, the lower the present value of future cash flows. The key to correctly valuing future cash flows, whether they are earnings or debt obligations, is determining the appropriate discount rate. The concept of present value states that a quantity of funds today is worth greater than the same amount in the long term. In other words, money gained in the long term is not as valuable as money received today.

The present value of a deferred perpetuity that pays $141 annually with the first payment occurring at year 5 is $1,938.89. This can be calculated by taking the present value of an ordinary annuity formula, which is PV = A / (1 + r)^n, and adding 5 to n. This gives the equation PV = A / (1 + r)^(n + 5), which can be simplified to PV = A / (1 + r)^n * (1 + r)^5. Thus, the present value is $141 / (1 + 0.06)^10 * (1 + 0.06)^5, which equals $1,938.89.

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3 0
1 year ago
Debt-to-equity ratio is:
babymother [125]
The D/E ratio indicates how much debt a company is using to finance its assets relative to the value of shareholders' equity
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3 years ago
Based on the given information, what will be the working capital of the company?
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

$37,000

Explanation:

Working capital indicates the difference between a company's current assets and its current liabilities.

Current assets include such as cash at hand, bank balances, cash equivalents, and inventories. Current liabilities are accounts payable, bills, and short term debts.

in this case,

Current assets include

Inventory    $50,000

Cash at Bank    $ 5,000

prepaid rent    <u>  $5,000</u>

Total current assets <u>$60,000</u>

current liabilities

Notes Payable   $20,000

tax payable       <u>   $3,000</u>

Total current liabilities  <u>   $23,000</u>

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3 years ago
Adam Holmes is the Processing Manager of Empire Mortgage Company, a firm that processes loan applications for a number of region
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

a. <u>Labor variances for 14 PT staff: </u>

Labor rate variance = (Standard Rate – Actual Rate) x (Actual time per app) * (number of apps. completed)

= ($50 - $52) x 1.40 x 2,604

= $7291.20 (Unfavorable)

Labor Efficiency variance = [(Standard hours per app. X number of app.) - (Actual time per App. * number of apps.)] * Std. rate

= [(1.20 * 2,604) - (1.40 * 2,604)] * $50

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= $26,040 (Unfavorable)

Labor Cost variance = Labor rate variance + Labor efficiency variance

= $7,291.20 (Unfavorable) + $ 26,040 (Unfavorable)

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<u>Labor variances for 10 SD staff</u>:

Labor rate variance = (Standard Rate – Actual Rate) x (Actual time per app) * (number of apps. completed)

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Labor Efficiency variance = [(Standard hours per app. X number of app.) - (Actual time per App. * number of apps.)] * Std. rate

= (1.40*1,600) – (1.20*1,600)]*$45

= [2,240 – 1,920] * $45

= $14,400 (Favorable)

Labor Cost variance = Labor rate variance + Labor efficiency variance

= $3,840 (Unfavorable) + $ 14,400 (Favorable)  

= $10,560 (Favorable)

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Maksim231197 [3]

Break-even price of call option = Exercise price + Premium Paid

So,

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4 0
1 year ago
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