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3 years ago

What is 2+2= and 100-40=

Mathematics

2 answers:

Amanda [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

2+2 = 4

100- 40 = 60

Step-by-step explanation: simple math

Roman55 [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer: 2+2=4 / 100-40=60

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

Express it in slop-intercept form

prisoha [69]

Answer:

y = ½x -3

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

If JKLM is a rhombus, MK = 30, NL = 13, and mZMKL = 41°, find each measure.

oksian1 [2.3K]

Answer:

$NK = 15$

$JL = 26$

$KL = 19.85$

$\angle JKM =49$

$\angle JML =41$

$\angle MLK = 90$

$\angle MNL =90$

$\angle KJL =41$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

$MK = 30$

$NL = 13$

$\angle MKL = 41$

Solving (a): NK

MK is a diagonal and NK is half of the diagonal. So:

$NK = \frac{1}{2} * MK$

$NK = \frac{1}{2} * 30$

$NK = 15$

Solving (b): JL

JL is a diagonal, and it is twice of NL.

$JL = 2 * NL$

$JL = 2 * 13$

$JL = 26$

Solving (c): KL

To solve for KL, we consider triangle KNL where:

$\angle KNL = 90$

and

$KL^2 = NL^2 + NK^2$

$KL^2 = 13^2 + 15^2$

$KL^2 = 394$

$KL = \sqrt{394$

$KL = 19.85$

Solving (d - h):

To do this, we consider triangle JKN

$\angle KNL = \angle LNM = \angle MNJ = \angle JNK = 90$ -- diagonals bisect one another at right angle

Alternate interior angles are equal. So:

$\angle MKL = \angle KMJ = \angle KJL = \angle JLM = 41$

Similarly:

$\angle MKJ = \angle KML = \angle MJL = \angle JLK = 90 - 41$

$\angle MKJ = \angle KML = \angle MJL = \angle JLK = 49$

So:

$\angle JKM =49$

$\angle JML =41$

$\angle MLK = \angle MLJ + \angle JLK$

$\angle MLK = 49 + 41$

$\angle MLK = 90$

$\angle MNL =90$

$\angle KJL =41$

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3 years ago

What is the solution to the inequality?

nika2105 [10]

7x + 18 > -3

Subtract 18 from both sides,
7x > -21

Divide from 7,
x > -3

In short, Your Answer would be Option D

Hope this helps!

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Use the "at least once" rule to find the probability of getting at least one 2 in four rolls of a single fair die.

Alexandra [31]

Answer:

Probability of getting at least one 2 equals 0.5177

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of at least one success is

$P=1-(1-p)^{n}$

where,

'p' is probability of success of 1 trail

'n' is number of events

We have probability of getting 2 is 1/6 thus 'p' = 1/6

Applying values we get

$P=1-(1-\frac{1}{6})^{4}\\\\P= 0.51177$

8 0

3 years ago