Answer:
The correct answer is Production loss.
Explanation:
The quantifiable cost associated with the interruption of the operation of a pump is low when compared to the cost throughout its useful life in an installation carried out in a commercial building. However, the loss of comfort suffered by users of the building makes it advisable to have a spare pump.
Unlike what happens in production processes, stopping a pump from a commercial building almost never results in a loss of production. On the contrary, the interruption is usually translated into a loss of comfort. However, the immeasurable costs associated with downtime may be even higher if, for example, hotel guests run out of water. Therefore, it is always advisable to install a replacement pump to prevent comfort losses caused by an unexpected failure in the pumping system. The communication capabilities of electronically controlled pumps E help minimize downtime because replacement and repair work can be completed more quickly in the event of a breakdown. A backup pump is used to prevent downtime and consequent loss of comfort in the event of a breakdown.
Answer:
with the new rate we will pay in 58 months.
if there is 2% commision charge: 59.35 = 60 months
Explanation:
Currently we owe 10,000
This will be transfer to a new credit card with a rate of 6.2%
We are going to do monthly payment of 200 dollars each month
and we need to know the time it will take to pay the loan:
We use the formula for ordinary annuity and solve for time:
C $200.00
time n
rate 0.005166667 (6.2% rate divide into 12 months)
PV $10,000.0000
We arrenge the formula and solve as muhc as we can:
Now, we use logarithmics properties to solve for time:
-57.99227477 = 58 months
part B
If there is a charge of 2% then Principal = 10,000 x 102% = 10,200
we use that in the formula and solve:
-59.34880001 = 59.35 months
The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
Using this formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(Wa-RFR )×SDB²]-[(Wb-RFR)×SDA×SDB×CC] ÷ [(Wa-RFR )×SDB²+(Wb-RFR)SDA²]- [(Wa-RFR +Wb-RFR )×SDA×SDB×CC]
Where:
Stock A Expected Return (Wa) =16%
Stock A Standard Deviation (SDA)= 18.0%
Stock B Expected Return (Wb)= 12%
Stock B Standard Deviation(SDB) = 3%
Correlation Coefficient for Stock A and B (CC) = 0.50
Risk Free rate of return(RFR) = 10%
Let plug in the formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(.16-.10)×.03²]-[(.12-.10)×.18×.03×0.50]÷ [(.16-.10 )×.03²+(.12-.10)×.18²]- [(.16-.10 +.12-.10 )×.18×.03×0.50]
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=(0.000054-0.000054)÷(0.000702-0.000216)
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0÷0.000486×100%
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0%
Inconclusion the proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
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B.one loaf of bread free when you buy one at regular price of 68 cents per loaf
The value of the item. ♀️