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2 years ago

What is 1/6 times 1/2?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Nostrana [21]2 years ago

7 0

Answer: 0.083 made it shorter

Step-by-step explanation:

0.08333333333 the hole thing

torisob [31]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

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A bottle contains 255 coins. 1/3 of the coins are ?1.00. 110 of the coins are 50p coins. the rest are 20p coins. work out the to

aliina [53]

Answer:

£152.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given that a bottle contains 255 coins. 1/3 of the coins are £1.00.

Let us find 1/3 of 255 to find the number of £1 coins.

$\£1\text{ coins}=\frac{1}{3}\times 255$

$\£1\text{ coins}=85$

This means we have £85.

We are also told that 110 of the coins are 50 p coins.

$\text{Value of 50 p coins}=\£0.50\times 110$

$\text{Value of 50 p coins}=\£55$

Let us figure out number of 20 p coins by subtracting the number of £1 coins and 50 p coins from 255.

$\text{Number of 20 p coins}=255-(85+110)$

$\text{Number of 20 p coins}=255-(195)$

$\text{Number of 20 p coins}=60$

$\text{Value of 20 p coins}=\£0.20\times 60$

$\text{Value of 20 p coins}=\£12$

Now let us find total value of the coins contained in the bottle by adding the values of £1 coins, 50 p coins and 20 p coins.

$\text{The total value of the coins}=\£85+\£55+\£12$

$\text{The total value of the coins}=\£152$

Therefore, the total value of the coins contained in the bottle is £152.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A kennel is moving 160 dogs to a new facility. Each dog has its own crate. The facility manager rents 17 trucks. Each truck hold

Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

17.7 = 18 (when rounded)

Step-by-step explanation:

160 divided by 9 = the amount of trucks.

8 0

3 years ago

Define a variable and write an inequality to model each situation. A light bulb can be no more than 75 watts to be safely used i

DaniilM [7]

Let the number of watts =w ‘no more than’ means less than or equal to, thus we will use that sign. The inequality can be written as: w<75

3 0

2 years ago

Pls help!!!!The probability of hitting a target on a single trial is 40%,Find the probability of hitting the same target 5/8 tim

azamat

Probability hit=40%=4/10
probability no hit=1-p (hit)=1-4/10=6/10
probability= p(hit)+p(hit)+p(hit)+p(hit)+p(hit)+p (no hit)+p (no hit)+p (no hit)
probability=4/10×4/10×4/10×4/10×4/10×6/10×6/10×6/10
=0.0022
( I think but I'm not 100% sure)

6 0

3 years ago

F(1) = 4<br> f(x) = f(x-1) + 3<br> Find f(2)

tester [92]

f(2)= f(2-1)+3

f(2)=f(1)+3

4 0

2 years ago