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Ivenika [448]
4 years ago
7

Assume that you select two 3-digit numbers at random from the set of consecutive integers from 000 through 999. The selections a

re made with replacement and are independent of one another. If the two numbers are the same, you make $700. If they are different, you lose $2. A random variable XX is defined as your gain or loss.
How many different values are possible for the random variable XX
Mathematics
2 answers:
MrRa [10]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

the answer is: 2

Step-by-step explanation:

from 000 to 999 makes a total of 1000 numbers from which we are selecting two numbers with replacement. This means that the possible combinations will be double of 1000.

1000 * 1000 = 1000000

to have the same number twice means that the possible combinations will be only 1000. (As there are only 1000 numbers).

But whether they are same or not there will be only two possible values of XX , 2 dollars or 700 dollars which will be the loss or gain for one trial, as the numbers picked will either be same or different.

bulgar [2K]4 years ago
5 0
I could be wrong but i think it is 1998
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What is the percent change from 1800 to 1926
Crank
The percentage change is 6.54%
You have to divide 1800÷1926, then multiply by 100 and you'd get 93.46, then subtract 100-93.46 which equals 6.54% :)
4 0
3 years ago
Two sides of a parallelogram are 65 feet and 87 feet. The measure of the angle between these sides is 52°. Find the area of the
telo118 [61]

Answer:

Area of the parallelogram is approximately 4,456.2 square feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The lengths of the sides of the parallelogram are 65 feet and 87 feet

The measure of the angle between the sides, Y = 52°

The formula for finding the area of a parallelogram is given as follows;

Area of a parallelogram = A·B·sin(Y)

Where;

'A' and 'B' are the length of the parallel sides and 'Y' is the measure of the angle between them

Let 'A' and 'B' represent the 65 feet and the 87 feet respectively, we get;

Area of the parallelogram = 65 ft. × 87 ft. × sin(52°) ≈ 4,456.2 ft.²

3 0
3 years ago
How to state gradient and y-intercept
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In summary. The graph of each equation is a straight line, m is the gradient of the line and c is the y-intercept. Conversely, if a straight line has gradient m and y-intercept c it has equation y = mx + c.

7 0
2 years ago
Food inspectors inspect samples of food products to see if they are safe. This can be thought of as a hypothesis test with the f
Molodets [167]

Answer:

b. type II

Step-by-step explanation:

given that food inspectors  inspect samples of food products to see if they are safe. This can be thought of as a hypothesis test with the following hypotheses.

H0: the food is safe

Ha: the food is not safe

It was concluded from the hypothesis test that the food is safe while it was not actually safe.

This is a case of false acceptance of null hypothesis when it is false.

In hypothesis test, there are two errors. a type I error is the rejection of a true null hypothesis  while a type II error is the non-rejection of a false null hypothesis

So this is type II error because we did not reject a false null hypothesis.

8 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
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