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dimaraw [331]
3 years ago
15

What is 1+1 = plz anser me

Mathematics
2 answers:
WITCHER [35]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1+1=2

Step-by-step explanation:

ez math

larisa86 [58]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

  1. 1 + 1 = 2
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The discount on a pack of socks is 15%. It is on sale for $17. What is the original price of the pack of socks?
Aneli [31]

Answer:

$19.55

Step-by-step explanation:

17*0.15=2.55

17+2.55=19.55

4 0
3 years ago
Find the mean of the set of data. Use a calculator if necessary.
dangina [55]

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

mean is average of the numbers

add all values then divide by the numbers

(1+5+8+10+11) / 5

35 / 5 = 7

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The weight of the chocolate and Hershey Kisses are normally distributed with a mean of 4.5338 G and a standard deviation of 0.10
Salsk061 [2.6K]

For the bell-shaped graph of the normal distribution of weights of Hershey kisses, the area under the curve is 1, the value of the median and mode both is 4.5338 G and the value of variance is 0.0108.

In the given question,

The weight of the chocolate and Hershey Kisses are normally distributed with a mean of 4.5338 G and a standard deviation of 0.1039 G.

We have to find the answer of many question we solve the question one by one.

From the question;

Mean(μ) = 4.5338 G

Standard Deviation(σ) = 0.1039 G

(a) We have to find for the bell-shaped graph of the normal distribution of weights of Hershey kisses what is the area under the curve.

As we know that when the mean is 0 and a standard deviation is 1 then it is known as normal distribution.

So area under the bell shaped curve will be

\int\limits^{\infty}_{-\infty} {f(x)} \, dx= 1

This shows that that the total area of under the curve.

(b) We have to find the median.

In the normal distribution mean, median both are same. So the value of median equal to the value of mean.

As we know that the value of mean is 4.5338 G.

So the value of median is also 4.5338 G.

(c) We have to find the mode.

In the normal distribution mean, mode both are same. So the value of mode equal to the value of mean.

As we know that the value of mean is 4.5338 G.

So the value of mode is also 4.5338 G.

(d) we have to find the value of variance.

The value of variance is equal to the square of standard deviation.

So Variance = (0.1039)^2

Variance = 0.0108

Hence, the value of variance is 0.0108.

To learn more about normally distribution link is here

brainly.com/question/15103234

#SPJ1

3 0
1 year ago
Y (y-4) – (y-2) (y-3)=10
marshall27 [118]

Answer:

y =16

I have solved it . It's in the picture above. Hope it helps

8 0
3 years ago
Create a matrix that is equal to F+G. The first matrix below is named F and the second matrix below is named G. Name the new mat
likoan [24]

F+G:

F+G=\begin{bmatrix}{-1.8} & {-8.6} & {} \\ {2.85} & {-1.4} & {} \\ {-1.8} & {5.1} & {}\end{bmatrix}+\begin{bmatrix}{1.32} & {-1.9} & {} \\ {2.25} & {0.0} & {} \\ {-6.2} & {1.4} & {}\end{bmatrix}

Then, add the elements that occupy the same position:

H=\begin{bmatrix}{-1.8+1.32} & {-8.6+(-1.9)} & {} \\ {2.85+2.25} & {-1.4+0.0} & {} \\ {-1.8+(-6.2)} & {5.1+1.4} & {}\end{bmatrix}

Solve

H=\begin{bmatrix}{-0.48} & {-10.5} & {} \\ {5.1} & {-1.4} & {} \\ {-8} & {6.5} & {}\end{bmatrix}

So, we find the element at address h31:

H=\begin{bmatrix}{h11} & {h12} & {} \\ {h21} & {h22} & {} \\ {h31} & {h32} & {}\end{bmatrix}

In this case, position h31 is - 8.0

8 0
1 year ago
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