Why is the label "the dark ages" an inaccurate statement for that time period in history?

History

1 answer:

Gwar [14]3 years ago

6 0

☁️<u>My Answer</u>☁️:

Because it was originally used to describe a time that was thought to display a lack of both Latin literature and contemporary written history, general population decline, limited building activity and material cultural achievements in general. With the advance in archaeological techniques in the 20th century, this has been proved to be incorrect.

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