Answer:
1
Step-by-step explanation:
(a+b)(a−b)=a²−b²
tan²(θ)+1=sec²(θ)
(sec(θ)+tan(θ))(sec(θ)−tan(θ))
=sec²(θ)−tan²(θ)
=(tan²(θ)+1)−tan²(θ)
=1
Answer:
Since both terms are perfect squares, factor using the difference of squares formula,
a
^2
−
b
^2
=
(
a
+
b
)
(
a
−
b
)
where
a
=
y
and
b
=
6
(
y
+
6
)
(
y
−
6
)
Answer:
1. 7/41
2. 7/15
Step-by-step explanation:
1. Probability that it is a multiple of 6 given that it is a 2 digit number: There are 7 numbers that are a multiple of 6 and are 2 digits: 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, and 48. There are 41 numbers that are 2 digits. So, it is 7/41
2. Probability that it is at least 20 given that it is prime. Out of the prime numbers from 1-50, 7 of them are at least 20 and there are 15 primes in that range in total. So, it is 7/15
It would be 3.5 as you start with 56 then take away 16 =40 then another witch is 24 the another 16 Is 8 so you have taken e16 away so far that's 3 pound and because you can take a full 16 off that makes it a half so final awnser is 3.5 56-16=40-16=24-16=8=3 pounds and a half hope I have helped you in any way
