Multiply the quantity in ounces (including the unit) by the fraction
(1 pint) / (16 fl oz) .
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's use the definition of the Laplace transform and the identity given:
with
.
Now,
. Using integration by parts with u=e^(-st) and dv=cos(5t), we obtain that
.
Using integration by parts again with u=e^(-st) and dv=sin(5t), we obtain that
.
Solving for F(s) on the last equation,
, then the Laplace transform we were searching is
The answer is r = p/2n - x/n
Rewind the "mind movie" of what happened. She added $74 to her account and then had $192. Back it up by subtracting the $74 from $192.
192 - 74 = 118
-5x^5 * -8x^4 - 5x^5*-9x - 5x^5*-9
= 40x^9 + 45x^6 + 45x^5