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beks73 [17]
3 years ago
5

Before prorating the manufacturing overhead costs at the end of 2016, the Cost of Goods Sold and Finished Goods Inventory had ap

plied overhead costs of $57,600 and $21,000 in them, respectively. There was no Work-in-Process at the beginning or end of 2016. During the year, manufacturing overhead costs of $75,000 were actually incurred. The balance in the Applied Manufacturing Overhead was $78,600 at the end of 2016. If the under- or overapplied overhead is prorated between Cost of Goods Sold and the inventory accounts, how much will be the Cost of Goods Sold after the proration
Business
1 answer:
CaHeK987 [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: $60238

Explanation:

First and foremost, we need to calculate the over applied overhead which will be the difference between the actual overhead and the applied overhead. This will be:

= $78600 - $75000

= $3600

Then, the portion allocated to the cost of goods sold will be:

= $3600 × $57600 /($57600 + $21000)

= $3600 × $57600/$78600

= $3600 × 0.7328

= $2638

Therefore, the cost of Goods Sold after the proration will be:

= $57600 + $2638

= $60238

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You are given the following information for Lightning Power Co. Assume the company's tax rate is 35 percent.
olga55 [171]

Answer:

The company's WACC is 9.14%

Explanation:

cost of preferred stock

= (dividend on preferred stock)/(current market price)

= [$100*4%]/$72

= 5.56%

total finance = debt + equity + preferred stock

                     = (8,000*$1,060) + (310,000*$57) + (15,000*$72)

                     = $8,480,000 + $17,670,000 + $1,080,000

                      = $27,230,000

weight of debt = debt/total finance

                         = $8,480,000/$27,230,000

                         = 0.31

weight on equity = equity/total finace

                             = $1.080.000/$27,230,000

                             = 0.04

WACC

= (weight of debt*after tax cost of debt) + (weight on equity*cost of equity)

= (0.31*0.0393) + (0.65-0.1185) + (0.04*0.0556)

= 9.14%

Therefore, The company's WACC is 9.14%

5 0
2 years ago
The secret to effective sales is to have a
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

Unique selling proposition (USP)

Explanation:

USP stands for Unique selling proposition, which is defined as the concept of marketing first, proposed as a theory for explaining a pattern in a successful campaigns of advertising.

It defines or means that such kind of campaigns should be made unique or distinctive propositions to the customer or clients in order to convinced them for switching or shifting the brands.

So, the secret for having a effectives sales, to have a USP (Unique Selling Propositions).

5 0
3 years ago
An employee earns $24 per hour and 1.5 times that rate for all hours in excess of 40 hours per week. Assume that the employee wo
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

Gross pay for the week is $1,500

Net pay for the week is $1,043

Explanation:

The gross pay is computed thus:

Normal rate pay  40 hrs*$24               =$960

Above normal pay(55-40)*$24*1.5     =$540

Gross pay                                               $1,500

Deductions:

Social security(6.0%*$1,500)                 ($90)

Medicare(1.5%*$1,500)                          ($22.5)

Federal income tax                                ($345)

Net pay for the week                              $1,043

The net pay for the week is gross pay less social security tax,medicare as well as the federal income tax,$1043 is the employee net pay for the week

4 0
2 years ago
A landowner in Texas is offered $200,000 for the exploration rights to oil on her land, along with a 25% royalty on the future p
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

b. She should develop herself as the EMV of developing is $1.125 million, which is higher than the EMV of selling.

Explanation:

The probability of discovered oil = 0.25 (25%)

Selling the exploration right= Selling Price + Probability of discovered oil × Royalty% × Future Profit

= $200,000 + 0.25 × 0.25 × $7,500,000 = $668,750

Developing = Probability of finding the oil × Future Profits - Cost of Well

= 0.25 × $7,500,000 - $750,000 = $1,125,000

= $1.125 million

Therefore the EMV for selling the exploration rights is less than the developing, the landowner will develop the site by his own.

4 0
3 years ago
To prevent loss of work on the computer, it is essential to:
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer: Its D. Save your document Frequently

Explanation: Hoped i helped!

4 0
3 years ago
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