Answer:
Seasonal.
Explanation:
A trade discount can be defined as a reduction in the price of goods given by a manufacturer to a wholesaler or retailer when they buy units of goods in larger quantities. This ultimately implies that, a trade discount is a percentage reduction in price given by a manufacturer to a wholesaler or retailer in order to encourage them to buy the goods in larger quantities and thus, increase revenue and profits.
Also, a seasonal discount can be defined as a reduction in the price of goods given during off-peak periods (off-season) in order to encourage customers to purchase a particular product.
Hence, when a firm or store offers a price reduction to customers who buy during off-peak periods throughout the year, we say the firm is giving a seasonal discount.
Answer:
There is not gain in this operation so the answer is $0
Explanation:
There are some journal entries that needs to be done to have a full picture of the statement
* Purchase
Fixed Assets 690.000
Cash 690.000
* Monthly depreciation
Since, the FA was depreciated during 8 years. Firstly you have to calculate the amount that can be depreciate on a monthly basis
Amount to be depreciated = (Cost of the FA - Salvage value) = (690.000-48.600) = 641.400
Then calculate the yearly depreciation
Yearly depreciation = ((amount to be depreciated/useful life) * years used) =
(641.400/10*8) = 513.120
then the journal entry to record the monthly depreciation for 8 years is
Depreciation expense 513.120
Acc Depreciation 513.120
* Post the Journal Entry to record the sell of FA
You have to reverse the Acc Depreciation and credit the FA
Cash 152.500
Fixed assets 690.000
Acc depreciation 513.120
Loss on sale of FA 24.380
Answer:
$91 favorable
Explanation:
Variable overhead rate variance = (Standard variable overhead rate - Actual variable overhead rate) * Actual hour worked
Therefore, we have:
Variable overhead rate variance = ($8.00 - $7.90) * 910 = $91 favorable
Note: the variable overhead rate variance is said to be favorable becasue standard variable overhead rate is geater than the actual variable overhead rate.
Answer:
$414,282.91
Explanation:
The issue price of the bonds is also known as the Present Value (PV) or current price of the Bonds and is calculated as :
FV = $440,000
PMT = ($440,000 x 9%) ÷ 2 = $19,800
P/yr = 2
N = 9 x 2 = 18
I/yr = 10%
PV = ?
Using a Financial calculator to input the values as above, the PV or issue price will be $414,282.91
Answer: $61,697.90
Explanation:
GIVEN the following ;
Membership bond = $20,000
Monthly membership due= $250
Annual percentage rate(APR) = 6% = 0.06
monthly rate (r) = 0.06 ÷ 12 = 0.005
Payment per period(P) = $250
Using the formula for present value of ordinary annuity:
PRESENT VALUE (PV) =
P[(1 - ((1 + r)^(-n)) ÷ r]
$250 [ 1 - ((1 + 0.005)^-360))÷0.005]
$250 [( 1 - (1.005)^-360)÷ 0.005]
$250 × [0.83395807196 ÷ 0.005]
$250 × 166.791614392335
PV = $41,697.90
Membership bond + present value
$20,000 + $41,697.90
= $61,697.90
