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zysi [14]
3 years ago
14

Pls help I’m failing

Mathematics
2 answers:
lara [203]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a.

the area of each parallelogram

<em>a. 66</em>

<em>b. 49</em>

<em>c. 25</em>

<em>d. 32</em>

<em>e. 18</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

a parallelogram is similar to a rectangle when you are finding the ares, you use the base and the height to find the area. If it helps, like the text suggested, just change them to look like a rectangle and then find the area.

spayn [35]3 years ago
8 0
The answer to this problem is a
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Ari bought a car with a loan. She owes $3000 in interest after 6 years. The rate was 3.75%. How much money did she borrow?
Grace [21]

Answer:

she borrowed $800

Step-by-step explanation:

$800 x 3.75% =$3,000

6 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP
garri49 [273]

Answer:

the correct answer is $14.55%

6 0
3 years ago
A 5-card hand is dealt from a perfectly shuffled deck. Define the events: A: the hand is a four of a kind (all four cards of one
TiliK225 [7]

In a hand of 5 cards, you want 4 of them to be of the same rank, and the fifth can be any of the remaining 48 cards. So if the rank of the 4-of-a-kind is fixed, there are \binom44\binom{48}1=48 possible hands. To account for any choice of rank, we choose 1 of the 13 possible ranks and multiply this count by \binom{13}1=13. So there are 624 possible hands containing a 4-of-a-kind. Hence A occurs with probability

\dfrac{\binom{13}1\binom44\binom{48}1}{\binom{52}5}=\dfrac{624}{2,598,960}\approx0.00024

There are 4 aces in the deck. If exactly 1 occurs in the hand, the remaining 4 cards can be any of the remaining 48 non-ace cards, contributing \binom41\binom{48}4=778,320 possible hands. Exactly 2 aces are drawn in \binom42\binom{48}3=103,776 hands. And so on. This gives a total of

\displaystyle\sum_{a=1}^4\binom4a\binom{48}{5-a}=886,656

possible hands containing at least 1 ace, and hence B occurs with probability

\dfrac{\sum\limits_{a=1}^4\binom4a\binom{48}{5-a}}{\binom{52}5}=\dfrac{18,472}{54,145}\approx0.3412

The product of these probability is approximately 0.000082.

A and B are independent if the probability of both events occurring simultaneously is the same as the above probability, i.e. P(A\cap B)=P(A)P(B). This happens if

  • the hand has 4 aces and 1 non-ace, or
  • the hand has a non-ace 4-of-a-kind and 1 ace

The above "sub-events" are mutually exclusive and share no overlap. There are 48 possible non-aces to choose from, so the first sub-event consists of 48 possible hands. There are 12 non-ace 4-of-a-kinds and 4 choices of ace for the fifth card, so the second sub-event has a total of 12*4 = 48 possible hands. So A\cap B consists of 96 possible hands, which occurs with probability

\dfrac{96}{\binom{52}5}\approx0.0000369

and so the events A and B are NOT independent.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the answer to &gt; solve 4cos (theta/3) -2 = 0, over [0, 4pi)
Vesna [10]

Hello from MrBillDoesMath!

Answer:  

@ =   pi/3 (or 60 degrees) or @ = 7 pi/3 (or 420 degrees)


Discussion:

Let "@' denote the angle "theta". We are asked to find @ in the interval [0, 4 pi)

where

4cos(@) - 2 = 0.                Adding 2 to both sides

4 cos(@) - 2 +2 = 2  =>

4 cos(@) = 2                     Divide both sides by 4

cos(@) = 2/4 = 0.5


This implies that @ =   pi/3 (or 60 degrees) or @ = (pi/3 + 2pi) = 7 pi/3 (or 420 degrees)


Thank you,

MrB

5 0
3 years ago
Someone answer this please
butalik [34]

Answer:

no, all of the parts aren't even.

Step-by-step explanation:

the parts must be even to make a fraction so it could also be said as out of 8 equal  parts, 3 are shaded but the parts arent equal so you can't.

Hope this helps! :)

8 0
2 years ago
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