Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Cosine is the adjacent side over the hypotenuse (You can remember sin, cos, and tan by using sohcahtoa or sin = opposite/hypotenuse, cos = adjacent/hypotenuse, tan = opposite over adjacent). I think a picture would help, too.
I attached a picture of what I think the triangle would look like.
If the picture is right (we're assuming it is) and going with what we're given (the triangle was addressed as triangle XYZ, meaning that <u>angle Y is in the middle and that's the one we'll use</u>).
Looking at my picture then:
.
The correct answer is obviously C because 99/100 equals 99.99 which is closest to 1 Hope this helps! :D
Answer:
Hi! The answer to your question is 
Step-by-step explanation:
☆*: .｡.｡.:*☆☆.*: .｡..｡.:*☆☆*: .｡.｡.:*☆☆.*: .｡..｡.:*☆
☁Brainliest is greatly appreciated!☁
<em>Hope this helps!!</em>
<em>- Brooklynn Deka</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
b is per the identity of angles on parallel lines when intersected by one inclined line the same as the 40° angle.
so,
b = 40°
due to the parallel nature of the 2 lines there is a symmetry effect for such shapes inscribed a circle. the upper and the lower triangle must be similar. and when applying a vertical line through the central crossing point, everything to the left is mirrored by everything on the right.
so, angle c must be equal to angle b.
c = 40°
and as the sum of all angles in a triangle is always 180°, d is then
d = 180 - 40 - 40 = 100°
the interior angle of the arc angle a is the supplementary angle of d (together they are 180°), because together with d they cover the full down side of the top-left to bottom-right line.
interior angle to a = 180 - 100 = 80°
due to the symmetry again, the arc angle opposite to a is the same as a.
as we know, the interior angle to a pair of opposing arc angles is the mean value of the 2 angles.
so, we have
(a + a)/2 = 80
2a/2 = 80
a = 80°
there might (and actually should) be some more direct approaches for "a" out of the other pieces of information, but that was the most straight one right out of my mind, and I don't spend time on finding additional shortcuts, when I have already a working approach.
Answer:
(4x + 1)(x² - 2)
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
4x³ + x² - 8x - 2 ( factor the first/second and third/fourth terms )
= x²(4x + 1) - 2(4x + 1) ← factor out (4x + 1) from each term
= (4x + 1)(x² - 2)
