For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
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Hmm, I'd say it's the first option.
Answer:
look at the picture for the answer
Answer:
P=300cm
Step-by-step explanation:
P=4a=4.75×4=300cm
75 in^2, because 5 times 5 (the split up hexagons make parallelograms and there is 3 of them, and parallelogram area is base times height.)
