Answer:
-8
Step-by-step explanation:
<em>Solve </em><em>the </em><em>brackets</em><em> </em><em>first</em>
<em>4</em><em>/</em><em>2</em><em>x</em><em>+</em><em>2</em><em>8</em><em>=</em><em>1</em><em>2</em>
<em>then </em><em>group </em><em>the </em><em>like</em><em> terms</em>
<em>2</em><em>x</em><em>=</em><em>1</em><em>2</em><em>-</em><em>2</em><em>8</em>
<em>2</em><em>x</em><em>/</em><em>2</em><em>=</em><em>-</em><em>1</em><em>6</em><em>/</em><em>2</em>
<em>x=</em><em> </em><em>-</em><em>8</em>
<em>i</em><em> </em><em>hope </em><em>this </em><em>helps</em>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Sequence term. Extend 14 brainlist please
Answer: Yes, 4-6 is the same as 4 + (-6).
Step-by-step explanation:
One reason why they are the same is because 4 - 6 equals -2 and 4 + (-6) also equals -2. You can turn 4 - 6 into 4 + (-6) by turning the subtraction sign to a plus sign and turn the positive 6 into a negative 6.
Answer:
C 40 inches
Step-by-step explanation:
You can use the pythagorean theorem to solve for the second leg. When you plug in 42 for a and 58 for c, you get 42^2 + b^2 = 58^2, then you can isolate b, which should be 40 inches.
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the distribute property to multiply each term of the first binomial by each term of the second binomial.
⇒
⇒
Collect like terms
⇒
Hope I helped!
Best regards!