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SashulF [63]
3 years ago
6

Use the figure on the Pythagorean theorem to write an equation relating H, D and x​

Mathematics
1 answer:
atroni [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

h² + x² = d²

Step-by-step explanation:

h and x are legs. d is the hypotenuse.

h² + x² = d²

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The formula for calculating simple interest, I, is I = prt where p is the principle, r is the rate and t is the time. Solve for
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Yolanda receives a $1,000 dollar raise each year from her starting salary of $40,800.
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Suppose n people, n ≥ 3, play "odd person out" to decide who will buy the next round of refreshments. The n people each flip a f
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Answer:

Assume that all the coins involved here are fair coins.

a) Probability of finding the "odd" person in one round: \displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}.

b) Probability of finding the "odd" person in the kth round: \displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} \cdot \left( 1 - n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}\right)^{k - 1}.

c) Expected number of rounds: \displaystyle \frac{2^{n - 1}}{n}.

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>a)</h3>

To decide the "odd" person, either of the following must happen:

  • There are (n - 1) heads and 1 tail, or
  • There are 1 head and (n - 1) tails.

Assume that the coins here all are all fair. In other words, each has a 50\,\% chance of landing on the head and a

The binomial distribution can model the outcome of n coin-tosses. The chance of getting x heads out of

  • The chance of getting (n - 1) heads (and consequently, 1 tail) would be \displaystyle {n \choose n - 1}\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - (n - 1)} = n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n.
  • The chance of getting 1 heads (and consequently, (n - 1) tails) would be \displaystyle {n \choose 1}\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{1} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} = n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n.

These two events are mutually-exclusive. \displaystyle n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n + n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n  = 2\,n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n = n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} would be the chance that either of them will occur. That's the same as the chance of determining the "odd" person in one round.

<h3>b)</h3>

Since the coins here are all fair, the chance of determining the "odd" person would be \displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} in all rounds.

When the chance p of getting a success in each round is the same, the geometric distribution would give the probability of getting the first success (that is, to find the "odd" person) in the kth round: (1 - p)^{k - 1} \cdot p. That's the same as the probability of getting one success after (k - 1) unsuccessful attempts.

In this case, \displaystyle p = n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}. Therefore, the probability of succeeding on round k round would be

\displaystyle \underbrace{\left(1 - n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}\right)^{k - 1}}_{(1 - p)^{k - 1}} \cdot \underbrace{n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}}_{p}.

<h3>c)</h3>

Let p is the chance of success on each round in a geometric distribution. The expected value of that distribution would be \displaystyle \frac{1}{p}.

In this case, since \displaystyle p = n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}, the expected value would be \displaystyle \frac{1}{p} = \frac{1}{\displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}}= \frac{2^{n - 1}}{n}.

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