To make it easier, you calculate the volume of the first aquarium.
1st aquarium:
V = L x W x H
V = 8 x 9 x 13
V = 72 x 13
V = 936 in.
Rate: 936 in./2 min.
Now that you've got the volume and rate of the first aquarium, you can find how many inches of the aquarium is filled within a minute, which is also known as the unit rate. To do that, you have to divide both the numerator and denominator by their least common multiple, which is 2. 936 divided by 2 is 468 and 2 divided by 2 is 1.
So the unit rate is 468 in./1 min. Now that you've got the unit rate, you can find out how long it'll take to fill the second aquarium up by finding its volume first.
2nd aquarium:
V = L x W x H
V = 21 x 29 x 30
V = 609 x 30
V 18,270 inches
Calculations:
Now, you divide 18,270 by 468 to find how many minutes it will take to fill up the second aquarium. 18,270 divided by 468 is about 39 (the answer wasn't exact, so I said "about").
2nd aquarium's rate:
18,270 in./39 min.
As a result, it'll take about 39 minutes to fill up an aquarium measuring 21 inches by 29 inches by 30 inches using the same hose. I really hope I helped and that you understood my explanation! :) If I didn't, I'm sorry. I tried. :(
If you're working with complex numbers, then I'm sure you're comfortable with plotting them on a complex-plane ... real part of the number along the x-axis, and imaginary part of the number along the y-axis.
When you look at it that way, your two points are simply two points on the x-y plane:
4 - i ===> (4, -1)
-2 + 3i ===> (-2, 3) .
The distance between them is
D = √ (difference in 'x')² + (difference in 'y')²
= √ (6)² + (4)²
= √ (36 + 16)
= √ (52)
= 7.211 (rounded)
Let the number be x, therefore, its square is x², and 44 more than the number is x+44 whose square is (x+4)².
Thus the sum will be x² + (x+44)²² = 8080
x² + x² + 88x + 1936= 8080 Combining the right terms
2x² + 8x - 6144 = 0 dividing by 2
x² + 44x - 3072 =0 solving for x
x = 37.6 or -81.6
Therefore, the positive number is 37.6
Answer:
#1. X=3 and #2. Y=9
Step-by-step explanation:
Glad i could help, give me a follow, so if you need help with any other question, im here.
Answer:
Therefore, the probability is P=1/84.
Step-by-step explanation:
We have a bag contains 3 red and 6 white tokens. Tokens are randomly selected and removed one at a time until the bag is empty.
We conclude that in a bag have 9 tokens.
We calculate the probability that the red tokens are drawn consecutively.
We calculate the number of possible combinations:
Number of favorable combinations is 1.
Therefore, the probability is P=1/84.
