Answer:
True
Explanation:
A mortgage loan is done to purchase or create real state or by existing property owners to raise funds for any purpose, in both cases, while putting a lien on the property being mortgaged.
The collateral will be the property, because is the item pledged to guarantee the repayment of a loan.
Foreclosure or repossession:
The act upon which the lender will take possession and sell the property to pay off the loan in the event the borrower fails to perform the payment in terms.
I believe the answer is: c. to make the loan look more attractive and competitive now
By offering it at low initial rate, the people who borrow money would experience low burden if they plan to return the money within short period of time. This would make them much more likely to obtain a loan, and it also would make the bank that create the loan program looks better compared to their competitors.
Answer:
1. the prices of existing bonds would rise
Explanation:
General Interest rates and price of a bond are inversely related. The market interest rate also reflects an investors expected rate of return also referred to as yield to maturity i.e YTM.
Mathematically, price of a bond is the present value of it's future stream of coupon payments as well as principal repayments discounted at investors expected rate of return i.e YTM.
So, when market interest rates fall in general, this would lead to a rise in the price of bonds as general interest rates represent yield to maturity.
Assuming a company sells 800 units at $16 each, has variable costs of $12 per unit. The after-tax income is $1,200.
<h3>After-tax income</h3>
Using this formula
After-tax income=(Selling units×Selling price)-[(Variable costs×Selling price)+Fixed costs]×(1- tax rate)
Let plug in the formula
After-tax income=(800 units× $16 each)-[(800 units × $12 each)+$1200]×(1-.40)
After-tax income=$12,800-($9,600+$1,200)×0.60
After-tax income=$12,800-$10,800×0.60
After-tax income=$2,000×0.60
After-tax income=$1,200
Inconclusion the after-tax income is $1,200.
Learn more about after-tax income here:brainly.com/question/1775528
Answer:
n = 40
i = 3% (semiannual)
face value = $80 million
coupon payment = $2,000,000
market price:
PV of face value = $80 / (1 + 3%)⁴⁰ = $24.52 million
PC of coupon payments = $2 x 23.115 (PV annuity factor, 3%, 40 periods) = $46.23 million
market value = $70.75 million
