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Sedbober [7]
3 years ago
15

Is ∆LMP≅∆NMP by HL? If so, which legs allow the use of HL?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Westkost [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

For the 2 triangles to be ≅by HL we need the hypothenuse and pair of legs to be congruent.

We know for sure that we have a pair of legs ≅

the legs MP≅MP by reflexive propriety ( is congruent with itself)

But we do not know from the picture that the hypothenuses are ≅

in ΔLMP the  hypothenuse is LM

inΔNMP the hypothenuse is NM

So unless is given that LM si congruent to MN the Δs are not ≅ by HL theorem

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