Answer:
d.total factory overhead cost variance.
Explanation:
In manufacturing accounting, at the beginning of the period, manufacturing overheads (i.e. costs other than Direct Material and Direct Labor) has been applied to Work-in-process using a predetermined overhead rate. At the end of the period, if the manufacturing overhead account shows a debit balance, that signifies that overhead has been under-applied (i.e. the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is <u>less </u>than the actual manufacturing overhead cost for the period), and contrariwise if the manufacturing overhead account shows a credit balance, it means the overhead is over-applied (i.e. the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is <u>more </u>than the actual manufacturing overhead cost for the period). In any case this balance warrants an adjustment to close out the books, by transferring it to the cost of goods sold account.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
a. As a premium expense
= ($0.460 - $0.44) × 695,000
= $13,900
b. As a difference of 3 months spot rate and spot rate
= ($0.455 - $0.44) × 695,000
= $10,425
The first one represents the premium expense for $13,900 and the second part represents the adjustment to the net income in a positive way
Answer:
the fixed dollar-pound exchange rate is consistently below the equilibrium exchange rate that would be produced by a private foreign exchange market.
Explanation:
Fixing an exchange rate means that the government is trying to intervene in valuation of its currency. It is fixing it's currencie's rate to another and using reserves to handle fluctuations in market price.
When the fixed rate is below equillibrum there is surplus of the countrie's currency at the fixed rate. The government will buy this surplus (if not the value will fall) by selling their foreign currency reserves. This is done to maintain the fixed exchange rate.
Reduced reserves of pounds noticed by the Central bank is as a result of fixed price below equilibrium.
Answer:
a. $6,400.
Explanation:
In solving this question on Computing the amount of Purchasing department expense to be allocated to Assembly, we'll have to use the formula below:
Purchasing department expense to be allocated to Fabrication = Total Cost of purchasing department X number of purchase order in / Total numbers of purchase orders in all operating departments
= $32000 X 4/20 = $6,400
