1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Igoryamba
3 years ago
9

Malika has a credit card balance of $321. Her available credit on this card is $4,679. What is her credit line

Mathematics
1 answer:
PtichkaEL [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: 5,000

Step-by-step explanation:

4679 + 321=5000

You might be interested in
Use theorem 7. 4. 2 to evaluate the given laplace transform. do not evaluate the convolution integral before transforming. (writ
irga5000 [103]

With convolution theorem the equation is proved.

According to the statement

we have given that the equation and we have to evaluate with the convolution theorem.

Then for this purpose, we know that the

A convolution integral is an integral that expresses the amount of overlap of one function as it is shifted over another function.

And the given equation is solved with this given integral.

So, According to this theorem the equation becomes the

\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{ \mathscr{L} (e^{-\tau} \cos \tau ) }{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1}}{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{1}{s}\left (\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1} \right).

Then after solving, it become and with theorem it says that the

\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} f(\tau) d\tau \right) = \frac{\mathscr{L} ( f(\tau))}{s} .

Hence by this way the given equation with convolution theorem is proved.

So, With convolution theorem the equation is proved.

Learn more about convolution theorem here

brainly.com/question/15409558

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
Select an expression equivalent to 60 + 72.
mestny [16]
It’s option B: 12(5+6) you add 5 and 6 first then you multiply 11 times 12 and you get 132, you get the same answer as 60+72 which is 132
8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Need this now. So pls help. -.-
dem82 [27]

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

I simplified it.

Hope this helps =]

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ok some one ask me what 20 + 20 - 20 is said its 20 e didnt belive me i know thats the right anser
postnew [5]

Answer:

it is because 20 + 20 is 40 and then 40 - 20 = 20

6 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!
vlabodo [156]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Anyone know what 7 1/4 divided by 10 is, Im too lay to do it and cant figure it out.
    7·2 answers
  • there are two numbers that are 3 times as far from 19 as they are from 11. the sum of the two numbers is?
    5·1 answer
  • What is an equivalent expression for 3 3-5?<br> ?
    11·1 answer
  • Which of the following would be a good name for the function that takes the length of a race and returns the time needed to comp
    6·2 answers
  • Find the value of x.
    15·2 answers
  • Write as a unit rate: 36 gallons to 9 minutes *
    15·1 answer
  • If 18 inches is 1 and one 2 feet. how many feet long is 36 inches board ,a 72 inches board?
    5·1 answer
  • What is the integer that makes the following subtraction sentence true:<br><br> 8 −? = –1
    5·1 answer
  • What is the rule for the reflection?<br> Pls help me
    11·1 answer
  • Which point is not included in the solution set for the inequality? (–1, 3) (0, 4) (1, 5) (2, 4)
    5·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!