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Kobotan [32]
3 years ago
12

80,023 written in scientific notation

Mathematics
2 answers:
natulia [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 8.0023 times 10 to the power of 4

Step-by-step explanation: 10 to the power of 4 if the ten with the tiny 4 on the upper right FYI

olga nikolaevna [1]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

80,023 (eighty thousand twenty-three) is an odd five-digits composite number following 80022 and preceding 80024. In scientific notation, it is written as 8.0023 × 104.

Step-by-step explanation:

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PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer:

20 = (x + 1) \times 10 \times 0.5 \\  = 5 \times (x + 1)  \\  x + 1 = 20 \div 5 = 4 \\ x = 4 - 1 = 3 \\ enjoy \: it

7 0
3 years ago
On 3 and 4, please answer this two question
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer:

3) ½ chance

4) 60 times

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3><u><em>3) Theoretically, if the spinner is spun 150 times</em></u></h3><h3><u><em>how many times would you expect to get an</em></u></h3><h3><u><em>even number?</em></u></h3>

<u><em></em></u>

There are 12 equal sections, getting an even numbers is a ½ chance. ( same as odd numbers)

The probability is ⁶⁄₁₂ or ½.

In addition, this is theoretical probabilty, it doesn't require experiments.

<h3><u><em>4) Based on the experiment, if the spinner is</em></u></h3><h3><u><em>spun 150 times, how many times would you</em></u></h3><h3><u><em>expect to get an even number?</em></u></h3>

Getting a 2: ⁴⁄₆₀ or ¹⁄₁₅

Getting a 4: ³⁄₆₀ or ¹⁄₂₀

Getting a 6: ⁷⁄₆₀

Getting a 8: ³⁄₆₀ or ¹⁄₂₀

Getting a 10: ⁵⁄₆₀ or ¹⁄₁₂

Getting a 12: ²⁄₆₀ or ¹⁄₃₀

Chance of picking a even number using 60 tries:

⁴⁄₆₀ + ³⁄₆₀ + ⁷⁄₆₀ + ³⁄₆₀ + ⁵⁄₆₀ + ²⁄₆₀ = ⁴ ⁺ ³ ⁺ ⁷ ⁺ ³ ⁺ ⁵ ⁺ ²⁄₆₀ = ²⁴⁄₆₀ or ⅖

Picking a even number using 150 tries:

⅖ · 150 = 60 times

5 0
3 years ago
I need help! (show how you got the answer) -1\2x​
QveST [7]

Answer:

please explain what you mean better

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
7.3 homework help me
olga_2 [115]

Answer:

1. Yes

∆RST ~ ∆WSX

by SAS

2. Yes

∆ABC ~ ∆PQR

by SSS

3. Yes

∆STU ~ ∆JPM

by SAS

4. Yes

∆DJK ~ ∆PZR

by SAS

5. Yes

∆RTU ~ ∆STL

by SAS

5. Yes

∆JKL ~ ∆XYW

by SAS

6. No

7. Yes

∆BEF ~ ∆NML

by SAS

8. Yes

∆GHI ~ ∆QRS

by SSS

9. x=22

10. x=12

Step-by-step explanation:

1. RS/WS=ST/SX and m<RST=m<WSX

2. AB/PQ=8/6=4/3

BC/QR=AC/PR=12/9=4/3

AB/PQ=BC/QR=AC/PR

3. ST/JP=10/15=2/3

SU/JM=14/21=2/3

ST/JP=2/3=SU/JM

and m<TSU=70°=m<PJM

4. DK/PR=8/4=2

JK/ZR=18/9=2

DK/PR=2=JK/ZR

and m<DKJ=65°=m<PRZ

5. RT/ST=UT/LT

and m<RTU=m<STL

6. KL/YW=20/18=10/9

JL/XW=36/24=3/2

KL/YW=10/9≠3/2=JL/XW

7. BF/NL=24/16=3/2

BE/NM=39/26=3/2

BF/NL=3/2=BE/NM

and m<EBF=m<MNL

8. GH/QR=32/20=8/5

HI/RS=40/25=8/5

GI/QS=24/15=8/5

GH/QR=HI/RS=GI/QS=8/5

9. x/33=18/27

Simplifying the fraction on the right side of the equation:

x/33=2/3

Solving for x: Multiplying both sides of the equation by 33:

33(x/33)=33(2/3)

x=11(2)

x=22

10. x/16=9/12

Simplifying the fraction on the right side of the equation:

x/16=3/4

Solving for x: Multiplying both sides of the equation by 16:

16(x/16)=16(3/4)

x=4(3)

x=12

4 0
3 years ago
8. Aimi decided to spend her money and save some in the ratio of 3:2. If her total money is RM
Bogdan [553]

Step-by-step explanation:

2/5×7500

2×1500

3000

RM=3000

3 0
3 years ago
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