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2 years ago

17 is a prime number. What can you conclude from this?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Margaret [11]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

17 can't be divided into 2 and it's a odd number.

Sloan [31]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

17 is a prime number because it is only divisible by 1 and 17 ..

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A box contains 5 red and 5 blue marbles. Two marbles are withdrawn randomly. If they are the same color, then you win $1.10; if

topjm [15]

Answer:

a) The expected value is $\frac{-1}{15}$

b) The variance is $\frac{49}{45}$

Step-by-step explanation:

We can assume that both marbles are withdrawn at the same time. We will define the probability as follows

#events of interest/total number of events.

We have 10 marbles in total. The number of different ways in which we can withdrawn 2 marbles out of 10 is $\binom{10}{2}$ .

Consider the case in which we choose two of the same color. That is, out of 5, we pick 2. The different ways of choosing 2 out of 5 is $\binom{5}{2}$ . Since we have 2 colors, we can either choose 2 of them blue or 2 of the red, so the total number of ways of choosing is just the double.

Consider the case in which we choose one of each color. Then, out of 5 we pick 1. So, the total number of ways in which we pick 1 of each color is $\binom{5}{1}\cdot \binom{5}{1}$ . So, we define the following probabilities.

Probability of winning: $\frac{2\binom{5}{2}}{\binom{10}{2}}= \frac{4}{9}$

Probability of losing $\frac{(\binom{5}{1})^2}{\binom{10}{2}}\frac{5}{9}$

Let X be the expected value of the amount you can win. Then,

E(X) = 1.10*probability of winning - 1 probability of losing = $1.10\cdot \frac{4}{9}-\frac{5}{9}=\frac{-1}{15}$

Consider the expected value of the square of the amount you can win, Then

E(X^2) = (1.10^2)*probability of winning + probability of losing = $1.10^2\cdot \frac{4}{9}+\frac{5}{9}=\frac{82}{75}$

We will use the following formula

$Var(X) = E(X^2)-E(X)^2$

Thus

Var(X) = $\frac{82}{75}-(\frac{-1}{15})^2 = \frac{49}{45}$

7 0

3 years ago

#16 and #19 only Please answer both as soon as possible.

Vlad1618 [11]

Answer:

1. it is not a direct variation because the value k is not kept throughout the ordered pairs

2. -a^5 - 2a³ + 2a², leading coefficient is -1

Step-by-step explanation:

1. to find the direct variation, we will use y/x = k with k representing our constant throughout the chart. if every value is equal to k, it is a direct variation

for this problem we will assume that the cup sizes are x and the cost is y

so the ordered pairs are (8, 0.90), (12, 1.35), (16, 1.80), and (24, 2.25)

.90/8 = 0.1125 <-- this is our k value for which every result has to be equal to

1.35/12 = 0.1125

1.80/12 = 0.1125

2.25/24 = 0.09375

since the value k was not kept throughout the ordered pairs, this is not a direct variation

2. the standard form of a polynomial is the exponents in descending order.

we have the following polynomial: 2a² - a^5 -2a³

to write it in standard form, we will go in descending order of the exponents. the largest exponent being first

-a^5 - 2a³ + 2a²

the leading coefficient of the polynomial is -1, as there is a negative sign in front of the newly formed polynomial

4 0

3 years ago

Item 18

VARVARA [1.3K]

40 tiles is the answer ! Have a great night love

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

PLEASE HELP WILL MARK BRAINIEST!!!!!!

vladimir1956 [14]

Answer:

Copy an angle is the best solution with compass and straight edge.

8 0

2 years ago

Jonas wants to mail a package that weighs 4.2 kilogram. how much dose the package weigh in pounds?

mash [69]

jonas wants to mail a package that weighs 4.2 kilogram. how much dose the package weigh in pounds?

we know that

1 kg = 2.20462262185 lb

1 kg=2.2 lb

we have

4.2 kg

Convert to pounds

4.2 kg=4.2*(2.2)=9.24 pounds

therefore

the answer is 9.24 pounds

7 0

11 months ago