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GaryK [48]
3 years ago
13

If 25 is 40% of a value, what is that value?

Mathematics
2 answers:
LenaWriter [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. 62.5

Step-by-step explanation:

exis [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A: 62.5

Step-by-step explanation:

40% of 62.5 = 25

40% of 80 = 32

40% of 60 = 24

40% of 12.5 = 5

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What are the solutions to 6x(second power 2)-5x-4=0
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6x²-5x-4=0
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7 0
3 years ago
Which function has an inverse function?
daser333 [38]

Answer: Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

By definition, only those functions that are one to one have an inverse function.

A function is one by one if there are not two different input values, x_1 and x_2, that have the same output value y

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{|x+3|}{5}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=2  f(x)= \frac{|2+3|}{5}=1\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=8  f(x)= \frac{|-8+3|}{5}=1\ \ ,\ y=1

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{x^4}{7}+ 27  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{(1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{(-1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{1}{x^2}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{1}{(1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{1}{(-1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

Then the answer is the option B.

You can verify that The function f (x) = x ^ 5-3 is a one-to-one function and therefore its inverse is a function

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3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation:

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