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Evgen [1.6K]
3 years ago
13

Mr. Roboto has bought a can of paint can you use 3/8 of it to paint a bookshelf in use 1/4 of its pink leg and he used some of i

t to paint a birdhouse and he has one-eighth of it left how much paint do you use for the birdhouse?
Mathematics
1 answer:
NNADVOKAT [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Fraction of paint used for bird  house = \dfrac14

Step-by-step explanation:

Let quantity of the total paint be 1.

Given:  Fraction of paint to book shelf = \dfrac38

Fraction of Paint to leg = \dfrac14

Fraction of Paint left = \dfrac18

Let x= fraction of paint used for bird house.

Total paint = \dfrac38 +\dfrac 14+\dfrac18+x=1

\Rightarrow\ \dfrac{3+2+1}{8}+x=1\\\\\Rightarrow\ \dfrac{6}{8}+x=1\\\\\Rightarrow\ x=1-\dfrac68\\\\\Rightarrow\ x=\dfrac{2}{8}=\dfrac14

So, Fraction of paint used for bird  house = \dfrac14

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o-na [289]

करना चाहिए। वे तुम्हें नष्ट कर देंगे।

आप कोई मौका नहीं खड़े हैं। तुम

उसके हाथ पर मर जाओगे। पछताना

8 0
3 years ago
Which graph represents an exponential function<br><br> graphs in comments
Sladkaya [172]
I don’t know can’t see it
8 0
3 years ago
Make D the subject of S=D/T<br> You may use the flowchart to help you if you wish.
hammer [34]
Given the equation, S = D/T:

To make the D the subject of the equation, we can start by multiplying both sides by T to isolate D:

(T) S = D/T (T)

TS = D

Therefore, the final answer is D = TS
8 0
3 years ago
According to the Mortgage Bankers Association, 8% of U.S. mortgages were delinquent in 2011. A delinquent mortgage is one that h
shepuryov [24]

Answer:

The probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is 0.357.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that according to the Mortgage Bankers Association, 8% of U.S. mortgages were delinquent in 2011. A delinquent mortgage is one that has missed at least one payment but has not yet gone to foreclosure.

A random sample of eight mortgages was selected.

The above situation can be represented through Binomial distribution;

P(X=r) = \binom{n}{r}p^{r} (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 8 mortgages

            r = number of success = exactly one

           p = probability of success which in our question is % of U.S.

                  mortgages those were delinquent in 2011, i.e; 8%

<em>LET X = Number of U.S. mortgages those were delinquent in 2011</em>

So, it means X ~ Binom(n=8, p=0.08)

Now, Probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is given by = P(X = 1)

                 P(X = 1)  = \binom{8}{1}\times 0.08^{1} \times (1-0.08)^{8-1}

                               = 8 \times 0.08 \times 0.92^{7}

                               = 0.357

<u><em>Hence, the probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is 0.357.</em></u>

4 0
3 years ago
How do you do this question?
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

V = (About) 22.2, Graph = First graph/Graph in the attachment

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that in all these cases, we have a specified method to use, the washer method, disk method, and the cylindrical shell method. Keep in mind that the washer and disk method are one in the same, but I feel that the disk method is better as it avoids splitting the integral into two, and rewriting the curves. Here we will go with the disk method.

\mathrm{V\:=\:\pi \int _a^b\left(r\right)^2dy\:},\\\mathrm{V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy}

The plus 1 in '1 + 2/x' is shifting this graph up from where it is rotating, but the negative 1 is subtracting the area between the y-axis and the shaded region, so that when it's flipped around, it becomes a washer.

V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy,\\\\\mathrm{Take\:the\:constant\:out}:\quad \int a\cdot f\left(x\right)dx=a\cdot \int f\left(x\right)dx\\=\pi \cdot \int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1dy\\\\\mathrm{Apply\:the\:Sum\:Rule}:\quad \int f\left(x\right)\pm g\left(x\right)dx=\int f\left(x\right)dx\pm \int g\left(x\right)dx\\= \pi \left(\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy-\int _1^31dy\right)\\\\

\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy=4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{14}{3}, \int _1^31dy=2\\\\=> \pi \left(4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{14}{3}-2\right)\\=> \pi \left(4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{8}{3}\right)

Our exact solution will be V = π(4In(3) + 8/3). In decimal form it will be about 22.2 however. Try both solution if you like, but it would be better to use 22.2. Your graph will just be a plot under the curve y = 2/x, the first graph.

5 0
4 years ago
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