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आप कोई मौका नहीं खड़े हैं। तुम
उसके हाथ पर मर जाओगे। पछताना
I don’t know can’t see it
Given the equation, S = D/T:
To make the D the subject of the equation, we can start by multiplying both sides by T to isolate D:
(T) S = D/T (T)
TS = D
Therefore, the final answer is D = TS
Answer:
The probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is 0.357.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that according to the Mortgage Bankers Association, 8% of U.S. mortgages were delinquent in 2011. A delinquent mortgage is one that has missed at least one payment but has not yet gone to foreclosure.
A random sample of eight mortgages was selected.
The above situation can be represented through Binomial distribution;

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 8 mortgages
r = number of success = exactly one
p = probability of success which in our question is % of U.S.
mortgages those were delinquent in 2011, i.e; 8%
<em>LET X = Number of U.S. mortgages those were delinquent in 2011</em>
So, it means X ~ 
Now, Probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is given by = P(X = 1)
P(X = 1) = 
= 
= 0.357
<u><em>Hence, the probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is 0.357.</em></u>
Answer:
V = (About) 22.2, Graph = First graph/Graph in the attachment
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that in all these cases, we have a specified method to use, the washer method, disk method, and the cylindrical shell method. Keep in mind that the washer and disk method are one in the same, but I feel that the disk method is better as it avoids splitting the integral into two, and rewriting the curves. Here we will go with the disk method.
![\mathrm{V\:=\:\pi \int _a^b\left(r\right)^2dy\:},\\\mathrm{V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cmathrm%7BV%5C%3A%3D%5C%3A%5Cpi%20%5Cint%20_a%5Eb%5Cleft%28r%5Cright%29%5E2dy%5C%3A%7D%2C%5C%5C%5Cmathrm%7BV%5C%3A%3D%5C%3A%5Cint%20_1%5E3%5C%3A%5Cpi%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cleft%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7By%7D%5Cright%29%5E2-1%5Cright%5Ddy%7D)
The plus 1 in '1 + 2/x' is shifting this graph up from where it is rotating, but the negative 1 is subtracting the area between the y-axis and the shaded region, so that when it's flipped around, it becomes a washer.
![V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy,\\\\\mathrm{Take\:the\:constant\:out}:\quad \int a\cdot f\left(x\right)dx=a\cdot \int f\left(x\right)dx\\=\pi \cdot \int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1dy\\\\\mathrm{Apply\:the\:Sum\:Rule}:\quad \int f\left(x\right)\pm g\left(x\right)dx=\int f\left(x\right)dx\pm \int g\left(x\right)dx\\= \pi \left(\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy-\int _1^31dy\right)\\\\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%5C%3A%3D%5C%3A%5Cint%20_1%5E3%5C%3A%5Cpi%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cleft%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7By%7D%5Cright%29%5E2-1%5Cright%5Ddy%2C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cmathrm%7BTake%5C%3Athe%5C%3Aconstant%5C%3Aout%7D%3A%5Cquad%20%5Cint%20a%5Ccdot%20f%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%3Da%5Ccdot%20%5Cint%20f%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%5C%5C%3D%5Cpi%20%5Ccdot%20%5Cint%20_1%5E3%5Cleft%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7By%7D%5Cright%29%5E2-1dy%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cmathrm%7BApply%5C%3Athe%5C%3ASum%5C%3ARule%7D%3A%5Cquad%20%5Cint%20f%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29%5Cpm%20g%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%3D%5Cint%20f%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%5Cpm%20%5Cint%20g%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%5C%5C%3D%20%5Cpi%20%5Cleft%28%5Cint%20_1%5E3%5Cleft%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7By%7D%5Cright%29%5E2dy-%5Cint%20_1%5E31dy%5Cright%29%5C%5C%5C%5C)

Our exact solution will be V = π(4In(3) + 8/3). In decimal form it will be about 22.2 however. Try both solution if you like, but it would be better to use 22.2. Your graph will just be a plot under the curve y = 2/x, the first graph.