I think the answer is 204 million
Answer:
$5,000 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total variable overhead variance is given below:
= Budgeted machine hours allowed for actual output × Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour - Actual total variable overhead
= 32,000 hours × $2.50 - $75,000
= $80,000 - $75,000
= $5,000 favorable
Since the favorable is more than the actual so it should be favorable
Answer:
Bad debt expense (Dr.) $68,930
Allowance for Doubtful Debt (Cr.) $68,930
Explanation:
Accounts Receivable :
Balance $948,000
Add: Sales $3,609,930
Less: Sales returns $51,000
Less: Collections $2,756,000
Less: Write offs $97,000
Add: Recovery of old Bad debts $28,000
Adjusted Balance $1,653,930
Bad Debts :
Balance $78,000
Less: Allowance for doubtful debts $97,000
Less: Recovery $28,000
Adjusted Balance $9,000
Answer:
Portfolio weight - Stock A = 46.473%
Portfolio weight - Stock B = 53.527%
Explanation:
The weightage of portfolio refers to the amount of investment in each stock in the portfolio expressed as a percentage of total investment in the portfolio. The weightage of portfolio can be calculated by as follows,
Portfolio weightage = Investment in Stock A / Total Investment in Portfolio +
Investment in Stock B / Total Investment in Portfolio + ... +
Investment in Stock N / Total Investment in Portfolio
Total investment in portfolio = 190 * 95 + 165 * 126 = 38840
Investment in Stock A = 190 * 95 = 18050
Investment in Stock B = 165 * 126 = 20790
Portfolio weight - Stock A = 18050 / 38840 = 46.473%
Portfolio weight - Stock B = 20790 / 38840 =53.527%
Answer:
Option C. $0.11
Option D. $0.95
Explanation:
As we know that the Transfer Price is set at either selling price for an outside market or variable cost plus opportunity cost if the product sold is to internal market present within the organization (Inter group or inter division sales).
However, the division can still charge upper limit price to the division which is $1 market price of the product.
Upper limit = $1
As it is given that the selling of the additional units will be among divisions which means its inter division market. Hence the lower limit will be used here.
Lower Limit = Variable cost + opportunity cost
Here
Variable cost is $10 cents
And
Opportunity cost will be zero here as the division will be using its excess capacity to sell to the other division, so there is no opportunity cost.
So, by putting values, we have:
Lower Limit = $0.1 - $0 = $0.1
Upper limit = $1
Thus the transfer price set for each bell can be between $1 and $0.1. So the $0.11 and $0.95 falls between these range and both are correct options here.
