5/2 • 4/1 (flip the second fraction to multiply)
20/2
10
A
Answer:
Yes (432 = 9 x48).
Step-by-step explanation:
The trick you need to know is the theorem that says that if the digits in a number add up to a multiple of 9, then the number itself is divisible by 9.
So we go 4+3+2 = 9.
So as this sum of 9 is divisible by 9, it means 432 is also divisible by 9.
If you want to work out the actual answer of 432 divided by 9, you can estimate it by doing 450 ÷ 9 = 50. Then see that 432 is 18 less than 450. And 18 = 2x9. So the answer to the division is 50-2 = 48.
<span>Tan(x) = sin(x) / cos(x). Therefore, tan(x) pi/2 = 1/0, which doesn't exist. Imagine that, instead of 0, it's a number incredibly close to 0. The smaller the number in the denominator, the bigger the outcome. Therefore, we can think of 1/0 as infinity, or approaching infinity as one gets closer to 1/0. This is the same result approaching from the negative side, only it's negative infinity. If x=0, it's 0/1 instead (sin 0=0, cos 0=1). Anything divided by 1 is itself, so as x approaches 0, so does f(x).</span>
The independent variable is the days he spends reading because nothing we have can determine that. However the dependent variable is the total minutes of reading because it relies on the independent variable to figure out. You can't find the total minutes without knowing the days he spends. The equation sould be d times the amount he reads per day =m
Answer:
but what we doo in this ur ques is half
