Answer:
$1,100
Explanation:
Computation for the Work-in-Process transferred to the finished goods warehouse on April 30
Work-In-Process Inventory, April 1 300
Direct materials used in production 225
Direct labor costs incurred 400
Manufacturing overhead costs 350
Less Work-In-Process Inventory, April 30 ($175)
Work-in-Process transferred to the finished goods warehouse $1,100
Therefore the Work-in-Process transferred to the finished goods warehouse on April 30 will be $1,100
Answer: D) Project A is better than project B for this company at this point in time.
Explanation:
Option D is the best option because we do not know that the basis for the scoring model directly translates to earnings. The scoring of Project A at 30 does not necessarily mean that it's expected to earn those amounts of revenue and therefore triple that of Project C. We do not know because the information is not complete.
What we do know is that A has the highest score out of all projects and this is why it is better to do Project A as opposed to Project B.
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Marginal cost is the additional expenses incurred in producing one more unit of output. Marginal cost is the expenses associated with the production of one extra unit.
In this case, there will be marginal costs in producing the first item. There is no extra unit in the first unit. Marginal costs will be zero. The second item's marginal cost will be the difference between the cost of the second and the first item.
First bike
=0
The fourth bike:
=Forth bike - third bike
=$130 -$110
= $20
The sixth bike
=sixth - fifth
=$210 -$160
=$50
The seventh bike
=seventh - sixth
=$270 -$210
=$60
Answer:
=$337.43
Explanation:
The value of each of the coins after 50 years is the future value after 50 years at their respective interest rate.
The formula for future value is FV = PV × (1+r)n
For the first coin at 5.2 percent,
Fv = 100 x ( 1 + 5.2/100 ) 50
Fv =100 x (1+ 0.052) 50
Fv = 100 x 12. 61208795
Fv = $1,261. 21
For the second coin at 5.7 percent,
Fv = 100 x (1 + 5.7 /100)50
Fv =100 x (1 + 0.057 )50
Fv = 100 x 15.98
Fv = 1, 598. 64
the difference in value will be
=$1598.64 - $1,261.21
=$337.43
Answer:
D) all of the above
Explanation:
First find the present value for each alternative using PV of perpetual cashflow formula;
PV = CF / rate
CF = 50
If rate= 5%;
PV = 50/0.05 = $1,000
If rate = 2%;
PV = 50/0.02 = $2,500
With these two calculations, we see that;
-the bond price increased by $1,500
-you could sell this bond at a capital gain, meaning you can sell it a higher price that what you bought it for.
-at an interest rate of 2%, the speculative demand for money would increase
Hence , all these choices are correct!
