As a result of the demand increasing only slightly compared to the reduction in price, the demand must be <u>inelastic</u>.
<h3>Why is the demand inelastic?</h3><h3 />
The demand is considered to be inelastic if the price elasticity is less than 1.
The price elasticity is:
= (%Change in quantity/% Change in price)
Solving gives:
= 15 / 200 ÷ 0.50 / 3.50
= -0.525
In conclusion, the demand for the shakes is inelastic.
Find out more on inelastic demand at brainly.com/question/1899986.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A retention of title clause within a contract of sale essentially means that ownership remains with the supplier, until full payment for the goods has been received. That is the seller of a particular product still holds full custody of his goods until the buyer fully pays for the goods.
I feel stressed reading this question as it has no context but the question is asking for your opinion. there really is no wrong answer
Answer and Explanation:
A. When the employees are more educated and have the higher income as compared with the less educated employees so here education would be indepedent variable and the income is dependent variable. Also the relationship between these two variables i.e. education and income is positive
Therefore the same is relevant
Answer: b. has a backward-bending portion.
Explanation:
A backward-bending supply curve shows what happens when people substitute higher wages for more leisure time like Amari is doing in this scenario.
At a higher wage, people will be able to work for shorter hours as such a job will still give them the same amount of money as working longer in lower paying jobs.
After they get a certain level of payment from the higher paying job, they will then substitute the remaining hours for leisure. This creates a backward-bending curve because labor hours are reducing past a certain level of wages.
