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forsale [732]
3 years ago
14

Why aren't the numbers 38 and 40 relatively prime​

Mathematics
2 answers:
sergey [27]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

may be this is helpful!

kati45 [8]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

38 and 40 aren't relatively prime because they can be divided by 2, 4, 10, and any numbers that multiply to 38 or 40. Like 4×10=40. You can divided 38 and 40 with any number while 5 can be divided once with 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Primes is that you can multiply a number something to get that number. For example: 3×3=6 and 1×6=6 but their one multication of 5 like 1×5.

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The graph of a function f(x) passes through the following points:
Alex

The function is f(x) = -2x² + 2 if the function f(x) passes through the following points:(0,2), (1, 0), (-1,0)

<h3>What is a function?</h3>

It is defined as a special type of relationship, and they have a predefined domain and range according to the function every value in the domain is related to exactly one value in the range.

The question is incomplete.

The complete question is in the picture, please refer to the attached picture.

We have:

The graph of a function f(x) passes through the following points: (0,2), (1, 0), (-1,0)

Let

f(x) = ax² + bx + c

Plug x = 0, and y = 2

c = 2 ...(1)

Plug x = 1 and y = 0

a + b + c = 0 ..(2)

Plug x = -1 and y = 0

a - b + c = 0  ...(3)

After solving (1), (2), and (3)

a = -2

b = 0

c = 2

f(x) = -2x² + 2

Thus, the function is f(x) = -2x² + 2 if the function f(x) passes through the following points:(0,2), (1, 0), (-1,0)

Learn more about the function here:

brainly.com/question/5245372

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