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3 years ago

When three times a number is subtracted from 36, the result is 4 plus the number. What is the number?

Mathematics

1 answer:

solmaris [256]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

x = 8

The number is 8

Step-by-step explanation:

36 – (3x) = 4 + x

36 – (3 • 8) = 4 + 8

36 – 24 = 12

12 = 12

x = 8

I hope this helps.

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A group walked 3/8 mile in 1/5 hour. Which is the groups walking speed in miles per hour

gogolik [260]

Answer:

The groups walking speed is $1\frac{7}{8}\frac{miles}{hour}$ or $1.875\frac{miles}{hour}$

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

To find the speed divide the distance by the time

$\frac{(3/8)}{(1/5)}=\frac{15}{8}\frac{miles}{hour}$

Convert to mixed number

$\frac{15}{8}=\frac{8}{8}+\frac{7}{8}=1\frac{7}{8}\frac{miles}{hour}$

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3 years ago

Use The Scale Factor 1:12 To Find The Missing Dimension

adell [148]

Answer:

The length of the model is 21 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

we have

The scale factor

$\frac{1}{12}$

That means

1 unit in the model represent 12 units in the actual

1 inch in the model represent 12 inches in the actual

Remember that

$1\ ft=12\ in$

1 inch in the model represent 1 ft in the actual

The scale factor is

$\frac{1}{1}\ \frac{in}{ft}$

therefore

21 ft in the actual represent 21 inches in the model

6 0

3 years ago

-7x+x-y-3+3 what is the answer Click and drag like terms onto each other to simplify fully.

Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

the answer is -6x-y

Step-by-step explanation:

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5 0

1 year ago

I will give brainliest.

butalik [34]

17, you only have to add up a few because of the x and y placements. Hope this helps you :)

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

An urn contains three red balls and four blue balls. Draw two balls at random from the urn, without replacement. Compute the exp

mezya [45]

Step-by-step explanation:

in total we have 3+4 = 7 balls.

when we draw the first ball, the probability to draw a red ball is 3/7, and a blue ball 4/7.

when we draw the second ball, we have now only 6 balls in total.

the probabilty to draw a red back now depends also on the result of the first draw.

if the first ball was already red, then we have only a chance now of 2 out of 6.

if the first ball was blue, then we have now a chance of 3 out of 6.

so, the probably to draw at least 1 red ball in 2 draws is the probability of drawing one on the first draw plus the probability of drawing one on the second :

1 - probability to see 2 blue balls

1 - 4/7 × 3/6 = 1 - 12/42 = 30/42 = 0.714285714...

the expected number of red balls in 2 draws is

1 red in first red in first red in second

but not second and second but not first

1×(3/7 × 4/6) + 2×(3/7 × 2/6) + 1×(4/7 × 3/6) = 12/42 + 12/42 + 12/42 = 36/42 = 6/7 = 0.857142857 ≈ 0.8571

7 0

3 years ago