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monitta
3 years ago
15

Pleaseeee help What one are equivalent?

Mathematics
1 answer:
PSYCHO15rus [73]3 years ago
7 0
2, 3, 5. I just solved them and they look equivalent.
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use Taylor's Theorem with integral remainder and the mean-value theorem for integrals to deduce Taylor's Theorem with lagrange r
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

As consequence of the Taylor theorem with integral remainder we have that

f(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + \frac{f''(a)}{2!}(x-a)^2 + \cdots + \frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n + \int^a_x f^{(n+1)}(t)\frac{(x-t)^n}{n!}dt

If we ask that f has continuous (n+1)th derivative we can apply the mean value theorem for integrals. Then, there exists c between a and x such that

\int^a_x f^{(n+1)}(t)\frac{(x-t)^k}{n!}dt = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{n!} \int^a_x (x-t)^n d t = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{n!} \frac{(x-t)^{n+1}}{n+1}\Big|_a^x

Hence,

\int^a_x f^{(n+1)}(t)\frac{(x-t)^k}{n!}d t = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{n!} \frac{(x-t)^{(n+1)}}{n+1} = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{n+1} .

Thus,

\int^a_x f^{(n+1)}(t)\frac{(x-t)^k}{n!}d t = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{n+1}

and the Taylor theorem with Lagrange remainder is

f(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + \frac{f''(a)}{2!}(x-a)^2 + \cdots + \frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n + \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{n+1}.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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