Answer:
Their combined future value will be 8,141.59.
Explanation:
Each deposit is invested at 12%, but for a different amount of years. So, the best thing would be to separate the three, calculate their value at the end of the third year for separated, and then obtain the grand total by adding up the results.
- First deposit = 1,200. It is invested for three years. The value at the end of year 3 is 1,200*(1.12)^3 = 1,685.91
- Second deposit = 2,200. It is invested for two years. The value at the end of year 3 is 2,200*(1.12)^2 = 2,759.68
- Third deposit = 3,300. It is invested for one years. The value at the end of year 3 is 3,300*(1.12) = 3,696.00
- The sum of the three deposits is 8,141.59.
Answer:
A fixed asset register is a detailed list of all fixed assets which are owned by a business. Its main purpose is to enable an organization to accurately record and maintain both financial and non-financial information pertaining to each asset and to easily identify and verify an asset when required.
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer is b) The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk.
Explanation:
A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) is a type of security backed by mortgage. It is comprised of a pool of mortgages that are bundled together and sold as an investment. Prepayment risk is the risk of loss of interest income due to early repayment of the principal by the borrower.
In the given situation, there are three tranches. The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk because it is receiving principal at the earliest. Hence, there is more of a chance of this principal being returned early and the CMO holder losing out on potential interest. Therefore, the prepayment risk of the first tranche is the highest among all three tranches.
Answer:
$50
Explanation:
Dividend discount model (DDM) is used to calculate intrinsic value of a stock. Since the dividends are expected to grow indefinitely, the formula will be as follows;
Price (P0) = D1 / (r-g)
where D1 = Next year's dividend = 2.50
r = required rate of return = 12% or 0.12 as a decimal
g = dividend growth rate = 7%
Price (P0) = 2.50/(0.12-0.07)
P0 = 2.50 /0.05
P0 = $50
Answer:
Gain= $14,500
Explanation:
<u>First, we need to calculate the book value of the equipment:</u>
Book value= purchase price - accumulated depreciation
Book value= 95,000 - 78,500
Book value= $16,500
<u>If the selling price is higher than the book value, the company made a profit by selling the equipment.</u>
Gain/loss= selling price - book value
Gain/loss= 31,000 - 16,500
Gain= $14,500
