Answer:
company can value of $190909.1
Explanation:
Given data:
current assets = $1,312,500
current liabilities = $525,000
initial inventory level is $380,000
current ratio = 2.2
current liabilities is calculated as 
plugging all value in above relation
current liabilities
current liabilities = $ 596590.90
and we know current liabilities is $525,000. Thus company can value of $190909.1
Answer:
Capital gains distribution is treated as long term
Capital gain from from redemption is treated as short term
Explanation: Capital gains may be explained as the profit made from the sale of a property or investment. Depending on the holding duration of the stock or bond, a capital gain may be classed as short term is held for below one year or long-term, of held for more than 1 year. However, According to the Internal Revenue service regulation, Capital gains are taxed as long term irrespective of the holding period in which the owner has possessed the fund.
Capital gains redemption however, follows the usual time-line and in this case would be taxed as short-term because the holding period is between July to May, which is a 10 months. Since it hasn't exceeded a year, then, it is classed as short term.
Six
sigma is a philosophy and set of methods companies use to eliminate defects in
their products and processes<span>.
It also seeks to reduce variation in the processes that
lead to product defects. It measures quality,
process for Continuous Improvement and enabler for culture
change so culturally six sigma means companies must learn how to be nearly
flawless in executing key processes and achieving business imperatives. Quantitatively six sigma means the average process generates no
more than 3.4 defects per million. Therefore, based on the figures given above
the defects per million opportunities (DPMO) is 15, 333 and the defective rate
us 1.533% and the passed rate is 98.467%.</span>
Answer:
a. Cash for $180
Explanation:
The receipts from the petty cash fund indicate that the owner of the box made purchases adding up to $177. Therefore that money is no longer part of the fund. Since the fund holds $200 and currently only has $20 then to replenish the account the journal entry would need to include a credit to cash for $180 ... ($200-$20=$180)
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Answer:
A per se violation
Explanation:
A per se violation is one that violates antitrust laws for example agreements made that violates the Sherman antitrust act. It has adverse effects on the competitiveness of a market.
Sherman antitrust act of 1980 is aimed at regulating competitiveness in a market. It prohibits anticompetitive agreements, and unilateral activities that tries to monopolize a market.
In this scenario Omega corporation and precision products, inc., are the principal suppliers of their product in their market. They make an agreement that one will focus on retailers and the other on wholesalers.
This is an attempt to monopolize the market by the two principal suppliers, and is a violation of the Sherman antitrust act.
