Answer:
<u>c. $2,018.00</u>
Explanation:
Lower of cost or market is the inventory valuation method which requires to record the inventory at a value lower of
- Initial cost of inventory ( Manufacturing cost or Purchasing cost )
- Market value of the Inventory ( Net realizable value of the market )
Product__Quantity__Cost per unit__Market per unit___ Lower ____Value
Jelly _____150 ______$2.00 ______2.15___________ $2.00____ $300
Jam _____ 370 _____ $2.65 ______2.50 __________ $2.50 ____ $925
Marmalade 260 _____ $3.10 ______3.05 __________ $3.05 ____ $793
Total Value ___________________________________________<u>$2,018</u>
<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>
1. the Yield to maturity
FV = 1,000
PMT = FV multiply with Coupon rate
, PMT = 1,000 multiply with 0.1 = 100
N = 5
, PV = -1,197.93
CPT I/Y
I/Y = 5.380166647
Therefore, the Yield to maturity = 5.380166647%
Where: FV – fair value, PV – Present value
2. Current yield = Coupon payment divided by Price
Current yield = 100 divided by 1,197.93
By solving we get,
Current yield = 0.08347733173
Therefore, the Current yield = 8.347733173%
Answer: ($24100)
Explanation:
The annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for the company goes thus:
The relevant cost to produce will be:
= ($4.10 × 19,000) + ($8.70 × 19,000) + ($9.20 × 19,000) + ($4.60 × 19,000) + $31,000
= $77900 + $165300 + $174800 + $87400 + $31000
= $536,400
The relevant costs to buy will be:
= 19,000 × $29.5
= $560,500
Since the relevant cost to buy is more than the relevant cost to produce, then the financial disadvantage will be:
= $560500 - $536,400
= $24,100
The answer is ($24,100)
Answer: $120,000
Explanation:
Purchase Price for 80%) $1,600,000 - (FV $1,850,000 × .80 = $1,480,000) = $120,000