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2 years ago

If a linear regression has a correlation coefficient of 0.85, which of the following statements is true?

Mathematics

2 answers:

cupoosta [38]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

4.The data has a strong linear association.

Step-by-step explanation:

The correlation coefficient is used to determine how related points in a data set are. The coefficient is always in between 0 and 1 (or negative 1 and 0), with 0 being not related and 1 being completely related. So, the closer the coefficient is to 1 (or -1) the stronger the association. Since 0.85 is close to 1 it can be said that the data has a strong linear association.

alexandr1967 [171]2 years ago

4 0

Number 4 hope it helps

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

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WHAT IS THE REMAINDER WHEN <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=32%5E%7B37%5E%7B32%7D%20%7D" id="TexFormula1" title="32^{37^{32} }"

Feliz [49]

Recall Euler's theorem: if $\gcd(a,n) = 1$ , then

$a^{\phi(n)} \equiv 1 \pmod n$

where $\phi$ is Euler's totient function.

We have $\gcd(9,32) = 1$ - in fact, $\gcd(9,32^k)=1$ for any $k\in\Bbb N$ since $9=3^2$ and $32=2^5$ share no common divisors - as well as $\phi(9) = 6$ .

Now,

$37^{32} = (1 + 36)^{32} \\\\ ~~~~~~~~ = 1 + 36c_1 + 36^2c_2 + 36^3c_3+\cdots+36^{32}c_{32} \\\\ ~~~~~~~~ = 1 + 6 \left(6c_1 + 6^3c_2 + 6^5c_3 + \cdots + 6^{63}c_{32}\right) \\\\ \implies 32^{37^{32}} = 32^{1 + 6(\cdots)} = 32\cdot\left(32^{(\cdots)}\right)^6$

where the $c_i$ are positive integer coefficients from the binomial expansion. By Euler's theorem,

$\left(32^{(\cdots)\right)^6 \equiv 1 \pmod9$

so that

$32^{37^{32}} \equiv 32\cdot1 \equiv \boxed{5} \pmod9$

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2 years ago