What does the quote “The man who does not read books has no advantage over the one who cannot read them.” mean?

English

1 answer:

andrew11 [14]4 years ago

4 0

Answer: they are both blind men.

Explanation: while one man (the man who doesn’t read) has the choice to inform themselves, the one who can’t read is unable to read. The illiterate one is blind to information and is hindered in his academic endeavors because he lacks a skill set needed to learn. But just because you can read doesn’t make you smarter than someone is illiterate. If you don’t read books to both improve your skill set and gain more knowledge, the skill set becomes useless and your just as helpless as the man who cannot read. Hope I didn’t confuse you more:

You might be interested in

Romeo and Juliet thesis statement about grudges? My teacher said that let go of old grudges, but it doesn't sound right so pleas

Ostrovityanka [42]

I think he may be right. But I have not read the whole thing, so I may be wrong.

3 0

3 years ago

How do the authors use characters to develop the common theme

Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

Themes are developed by authors through the following ways: What happens - key events. Characters - character qualities, character actions and how characters respond to situations may all relate to theme. Character development - the ways characters change, and the lessons they learn indicate themes for the reader.

6 0

3 years ago

A sentence is not a sentence without:

geniusboy [140]

Without a subject and a verb

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Are u different than others or you are special among others, how?

mamaluj [8]

Answer:

different

Explanation:

because there is no one else like you

7 0

3 years ago

Can some help me with this PLZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ???? ASAPP No links plzzz

Keith_Richards [23]

1. Counterpoint

2. Point

3. Point

4. Point

5. Counterpoint

6. Counterpoint

7 0

3 years ago