PLS HELP 20 PTS
2 answers:
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Answer:
The probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.
Step-by-step explanation:
The gambler commences with $30, i.e. she played 3 games.
Let <em>X</em> = number of games won by the gambler.
The probability of winning a game is, <em>p</em> = 0.10.
The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution, with probability mass function:
Compute the probability of exactly one winning as follows:
Thus, the probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Note that the denominator (bottom number) are the same when you are adding. Simply add the numerator (top number) together:
As it asks for an improper fraction. Simply leave it as it is.
is your answer.
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