No because thefirst one is equal to 91 and the other is equal to 15
Answer:
true
Step-by-step explanation:
(B)
if <em>f</em>(a) = K, then that means <em>f </em>sends (a) to (K).
the inverse function, <em>f</em>-1, goes back where you started, so <em>f</em>-1 <em />sends (K) to (a).
<em>f</em>-1(K) = a.
Answer:
where's the worksheet
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
shaquille
Step-by-step explanation:
she had the greatest rate of typing
